Cell Metabolism, Redox Reactions, and Energy Production in Microorganisms

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Last updated 3:05 PM on 3/31/26
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214 Terms

1
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What is the definition of metabolism?

The total of all chemical reactions in the cell.

2
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What is catabolism?

The breakdown of complex molecules that releases energy and generates precursors for biosynthesis.

3
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What is anabolism?

The biosynthesis of complex molecules, which requires energy.

4
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What are the three major types of cellular work?

Chemical work, transport work, and mechanical work.

5
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What is the chemical equilibrium of a reaction?

The state where the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.

6
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What does the equilibrium constant (Keq) express?

The equilibrium concentrations of products relative to reactants.

7
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What is the difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions regarding free energy?

Exergonic reactions have a negative ΔG°′, while endergonic reactions have a positive ΔG°′.

8
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Why is ATP considered a coupling agent in metabolism?

Its exergonic breakdown is coupled with endergonic reactions to make them more favorable.

9
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What is the LEO GER acronym for redox reactions?

Loss of Electrons = Oxidation; Gain of Electrons = Reduction.

10
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In a redox reaction, what is a reducing agent?

An electron donor that gets oxidized.

11
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In a redox reaction, what is an oxidizing agent?

An electron acceptor that gets reduced.

12
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What is standard reduction potential (E0)?

A measure of a molecule's tendency to accept electrons.

13
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How does the difference in E0 between a redox pair affect free energy?

As the difference in E0 increases, the amount of free energy made available increases.

14
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Which electron carrier uses iron within a heme group?

Cytochromes.

15
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What is the function of nonheme iron-sulfur proteins like ferredoxin?

They use iron to transport electrons without being part of a heme group.

16
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What is the Electron Transport Chain (ETC)?

A series of protein complexes and molecules that transfer electrons via redox reactions to synthesize ATP.

17
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What is the proton motive force?

An electrochemical proton gradient created by redox reactions that drives ATP synthesis.

18
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Where is the ETC located in bacteria and archaea?

In the plasma membrane.

19
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Where is the ETC located in Eukarya?

In the internal membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts.

20
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How are electron carriers organized in the ETC?

They are organized from the most negative E′0 to the least negative, allowing electrons to flow sequentially.

21
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What is the primary energy storage molecule in cells?

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

22
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What is the relationship between electron content and energy in a molecule?

The more electrons a molecule has, the more energy-rich it is.

23
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How do phototrophs obtain energy?

They use light.

24
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How do chemotrophs obtain energy?

They obtain energy from the oxidation of chemical compounds.

25
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What is the electron source for lithotrophs?

Reduced inorganic substances.

26
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What is the electron source for organotrophs?

Reduced organic compounds.

27
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What is the carbon source for autotrophs?

Carbon dioxide.

28
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What is the carbon source for heterotrophs?

Organic molecules.

29
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What is the nutritional type of humans and most nonphotosynthetic microbes?

Chemoorganoheterotrophs.

30
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What are the three basic needs of all organisms regardless of their energy source?

ATP, reducing power, and precursor metabolites.

31
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What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?

Oxygen.

32
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What are some examples of final electron acceptors in anaerobic respiration?

NO3-, SO4 2-, CO2, Fe3+, or SeO4 2-.

33
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How is ATP primarily generated during fermentation?

Substrate-level phosphorylation.

34
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What are the three common glycolytic pathways?

Embden-Meyerhof (EM), Entner-Doudoroff (ED), and Pentose phosphate pathway (PPP).

35
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What is the net yield of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway per glucose molecule?

2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 NADH.

36
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Where does the TCA cycle occur in eukaryotes?

In the mitochondrial matrix.

37
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Where does the TCA cycle occur in bacteria and archaea?

In the cytoplasm.

38
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What molecule is pyruvate converted into before entering the TCA cycle?

Acetyl-CoA.

39
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What are the products of the TCA cycle per acetyl-CoA molecule?

2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP or ATP.

40
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What is the primary function of the electron transport chain (ETC)?

To oxidize NADH and FADH2 to generate ATP via oxidative phosphorylation.

41
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What is the chemiosmotic hypothesis?

The theory that ATP production is driven by the proton motive force.

42
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What constitutes the proton motive force (PMF)?

A combined chemical and electrical potential difference across a membrane.

43
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What enzyme uses the proton motive force to synthesize ATP?

ATP synthase.

44
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How many ATP are theoretically produced during aerobic respiration?

32 ATP.

45
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Where is the ETC located in bacteria and archaea?

In the plasma membrane.

46
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Why might bacterial ETCs be less efficient than mitochondrial ETCs?

They may be shorter, resulting in fewer protons pumped and less energy conserved.

47
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How many ATP molecules are yielded by glycolysis under anaerobic conditions?

2 ATP molecules

48
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List three factors that affect the total ATP yield in bacteria.

Shorter ETCs, environmental conditions, and the use of PMF for non-ATP purposes like flagella rotation or nutrient uptake.

49
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Why does anaerobic respiration yield less energy than aerobic respiration?

The reduction potential of the alternative terminal electron acceptor is less positive than that of oxygen.

50
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What is the process of dissimilatory nitrate reduction that produces nitrogen gas?

Denitrification

51
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What is the primary metabolic role of fermentation regarding NADH?

The oxidation of NADH to regenerate NAD+.

52
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Does fermentation involve an electron transport chain?

No, it does not involve an ETC or oxidative phosphorylation.

53
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How is ATP formed during fermentation?

By substrate-level phosphorylation.

54
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What is the difference between homolactic and heterolactic fermenters?

Homolactic fermenters reduce pyruvate directly to lactate, while heterolactic fermenters produce lactate, ethanol, and CO2.

55
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What are the end products of alcoholic fermentation?

Ethanol and CO2.

56
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What is the primary energy source for chemolithotrophs?

Inorganic molecules.

57
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Why do chemolithotrophs need to oxidize large quantities of inorganic material?

Because inorganic molecules have more positive redox potentials, resulting in less available energy compared to glucose.

58
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What is the role of nitrifying bacteria?

They oxidize ammonia to nitrate.

59
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What is electron bifurcation?

A process where a flavoenzyme couples an endergonic reaction with an exergonic reduction to drive the former.

60
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What are the two main stages of photosynthesis in photoautotrophs?

Light reactions (energy conversion) and dark reactions (CO2 fixation).

61
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What is the electron source for oxygenic photosynthesis?

Water (H2O).

62
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What is the main difference between oxygenic and anoxygenic photosynthesis regarding oxygen production?

Oxygenic photosynthesis generates O2, while anoxygenic photosynthesis does not.

63
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What is the function of light-harvesting complexes (antennas)?

To capture light energy and transfer it to the reaction-center chlorophyll.

64
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Which photosystems are involved in non-cyclic photophosphorylation?

Both Photosystem I and Photosystem II.

65
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What is the primary electron source for anoxygenic photosynthesis?

Inorganic compounds such as H2, H2S, or S.

66
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In which structures do anoxygenic phototrophs house their bacteriochlorophylls?

Membranous vesicles called chlorosomes.

67
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What is the primary function of bacteriorhodopsin in rhodopsin-based phototrophy?

It functions as a light-driven proton pump to generate a proton motive force.

68
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Does rhodopsin-based phototrophy utilize an electron transport chain?

No, it does not.

69
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What is the definition of a photoheterotroph?

An organism that uses light for energy but does not perform carbon fixation.

70
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What is the main purpose of the dark reactions in photosynthesis?

To use ATP and NADPH to fix CO2 and synthesize cell constituents.

71
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What are the two purine bases found in DNA?

Adenine and guanine

72
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What are the two pyrimidine bases found in DNA?

Cytosine and thymine

73
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How many hydrogen bonds connect guanine and cytosine?

Three

74
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How many hydrogen bonds connect adenine and thymine?

Two

75
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What term describes the orientation of the two strands of a DNA double helix?

Antiparallel

76
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What are the three main differences between DNA and RNA?

RNA uses uracil instead of thymine, contains ribose instead of deoxyribose, and is typically single-stranded

77
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What does it mean that DNA replication is semiconservative?

Each daughter cell obtains one old (template) strand and one newly synthesized strand

78
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What is a replicon?

A portion of the genome that contains an origin and is replicated as a unit

79
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What protein binds to the bacterial origin of replication (oriC) to initiate strand separation?

DnaA

80
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In which direction does DNA polymerase synthesize new DNA strands?

5' to 3' direction

81
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What are the three requirements for DNA polymerase to synthesize a new strand?

A template, a primer, and dNTPs

82
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What is the function of topoisomerases during DNA replication?

To relieve tension from rapid unwinding and prevent positive supercoiling

83
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What is the specific role of DNA gyrase?

To transiently break one or two strands of DNA to change its structure without altering the nucleotide sequence

84
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What is the function of single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSB)?

To keep the separated DNA strands apart during replication

85
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What is the role of primase in DNA replication?

To synthesize short RNA primers needed by DNA polymerase

86
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What are Okazaki fragments?

Short, discontinuous fragments of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand

87
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How does DNA polymerase III perform proofreading?

By using 3' to 5' exonuclease activity to remove mismatched bases

88
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What is the function of DNA polymerase I?

To remove RNA primers and fill the resulting gaps with DNA

89
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What is the role of DNA ligase?

To form a phosphodiester bond between the 3'-hydroxyl and 5'-phosphate of adjacent DNA fragments

90
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Why do eukaryotic chromosomes require multiple origins of replication?

Because eukaryotic chromosomes are much larger than bacterial chromosomes, multiple origins speed up the overall replication process

91
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What is the origin recognition complex (ORC)?

A complex of proteins that marks the initiation sites for DNA replication in eukaryotes

92
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What are telomeres?

Protective complex structures at the ends of linear chromosomes that shorten with each replication cycle

93
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What is the G-tail in a telomere?

A single-stranded section at the very end of the chromosome rich in guanosine bases

94
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How do archaeal chromosomes compare to bacterial chromosomes?

They are similar in size and circular structure, but some archaea have histones associated with their chromosomes

95
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Which family of DNA polymerases do both eukaryotes and archaea use?

B family DNA polymerases

96
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What are the three components attached to the central carbon of an amino acid?

A carboxy group (C-terminal), an amino group (N-terminal), and a side chain.

97
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What type of bond links amino acids to form proteins?

Peptide bonds.

98
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How is a gene defined in molecular biology?

A nucleic acid sequence that codes for a polypeptide, tRNA, or rRNA.

99
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What is the function of the promoter region in a gene?

It is the non-transcribed region where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.

100
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What are the specific recognition and binding sites within a bacterial promoter?

The -35 site (recognition) and the -10 site (Pribnow box, binding).

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