Immunology Final exam msstate practice questions

What is described as a Deliberate delivery of pathogen antigens that can elicit a primary immune response but have little or no pathogenic potential.

A. disease

B. Vaccination

C. neutralization

D. herd immunity

B. vaccination

True or false: The goaL of vaccination is development of long-lasting immunological memory?

A. true

B. false

A. true

What was done for the smallpox vaccine before the 19th century?

A. Vaccina virus was used in the vaccine against smallpox

B. Cowpox virus was used as a vaccine for smallpox

C. variolation was the practice of immunization using dried material from the pustule of a mild Smallpox infection

C. variolation was the practice of immunization using dried material from the pustule of a mild Smallpox infection

What was done for the smallpox vaccine in the early 19th century?

A. Vaccina virus was used in the vaccine against smallpox

B. Cowpox virus was used as a vaccine for smallpox

C. variolation was the practice of immunization using dried material from the pustule of a mild Smallpox infection

B. Cowpox virus was used as a vaccine for smallpox

What was done for the smallpox vaccine in the 20th century?

A. Vaccina virus was used in the vaccine against smallpox

B. Cowpox virus was used as a vaccine for smallpox

C. variolation was the practice of immunization using dried material from the pustule of a mild Smallpox infection

A. Vaccina virus was used in the vaccine against smallpox

true or false: There is a vaccine for 12 bacterial diseases and 12 viral diseases. With most being toward a highly fatality viruses

A. true

B. false

A. true

Which of the following is correct regarding Live-attenuated pathogens?:

A. by growing in cells from another species it become less able to grow in human cells

B. less pathogenic

C. typically elicit the strongest memory responses

D. all of the following is correct

D. all of the above is correct

True or false: Killed/ inactive pathogensgenerate a much stronger memory response than live-attenuated pathogens.

A. true

B. false

B. false (typically generates a weaker memory response)

Why are there both killed and live-attenuated vaccines available for Polio virus?

A. Killed/ inactivated vaccine protects an individual, but does not prevent transmission

B. oral, live-attenuated vaccine prevents person-person transmission

C. live- attenuated vaccine is recommended in countries where risk of infection remains high.\

D. more than one is correct

E. none of the above

D. more than one is correct (A,B,C)

What type of vaccine is describe by these virses:

Hepatitis B vaccine, Tetanus, Diphtheria acellular Pertussis vaccine,, Human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV), Novavax COVID-1

A. viral vector vaccine for COVID19

B. mRNA vaccine

C. Subunit vaccination

C. Subunit vaccination

What is true about adjuvant

A. a substance that stimulates the innate immune system

B. It is always needed for subunit vaccines

C. a substance that stimulated the adaptive immune system

A. a substance that stimulates the innate immune system

What is described as a large majority of immune individuals protect a small minority of non- immune individuals . disease

A. disease

B. Vaccination

C. neutralization

D. herd immunity

D. herd immunity

Which of the following is not correct regarding herd immunity?

A. Smaller probability that non-immune individuals will encounter the pathogen.

B. Increased vaccination rates cause a loss herd immunity.

C. decreased vaccination rates cause a loss of herb immunity.

D. Chains of infection are disrupted

B. Increased vaccination rates cause a loss herd immunity

True or false: vaccines must be perceived to have benefits that outweigh risks.

A. true

B. false

A. true

What is this definition describing:

An adaptive immune responses to non-microbial environmental antigens

A. activation

B. allergen

C. Hypersensitivity/allergic reaction

D. immunity

C. Hypersensitivity/allergic reaction

What is this definition describing:

An antigen that causes a hypersensitivity/allergic reaction

A. activation

B. allergen

C. Hypersensitivity/allergic reaction

D. immunity

B. allergen

True or false: IgE is never involved in defense against helminth parasites (worms) and type 1 hypersensitivity reactions.

A. true

B. false

B. false (is involved)

Molecules released by mast cells act to:

A. Physically expel the pathogen

B. recruit other leukocytes

C. repeal toxins in the blood

D. none of the above

E. more than one is correct

E. more than one is correct (A, B)

True or false: Type I hypersensitivity responses are immediate but can also have a late phase

A. true

B. false

A. true

True or false: There are many features that are shared by all allergens that cause a type I hypersensitivity!

A. true

B. false

B. false (there is no single feature)

Several different_________ have been implicated in increased susceptibility to developing an allergy

A. Alleles

B. mutations

C. susceptibility genes

D. allergies

C. susceptibility genes

True or false: Only environmental factors and never genetic factors contribute to the development of allergies

A. true

B. false

B. false (both genetic and environment factors contribute)

What does molecules released from mast cell do not act on?:

A. skeletal muscle

B. blood vessels

C. smooth muscle

D. mucus production

A. skeletal muscle

What is being described when listing off the symptoms and locations of the allergen?:

Allergen enters through the nasal mucosa and activates mast cells in underlying tissue  Causes local edema, blocked nasal passages, increased mucus production

A. Acute response

B. Asthma

C. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

D. Allergic conjunctivitis

C. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

What is being described when listing off the symptoms and locations of the allergen?:

Allergen enters through the conjunctiva  Causes watery inflamed eyes

A. Acute response

B. Asthma

C. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

D. Allergic conjunctivitis

D. Allergic conjunctivitis

What is being described when listing off the symptoms and locations of the allergen?:

enters through the respiratory tract mucosa and activates mast cells in underlying tissue  ______ can have an acute response and a chronic response
A. Acute response

B. Asthma

C. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

D. Allergic conjunctivitis

B. Asthma

What is being described when listing off the symptoms and locations of the allergen?:

Causes bronchial constriction (narrowing of the airways) due to smooth muscle contraction, increased mucus, and swelling (due to increased blood vessel permeability)

A. Acute response

B. Asthma

C. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

D. Allergic conjunctivitis

A. Acute response

Which of the following is incorrect about chronic response?

A. Caused by continued presence of TH2 cells, eosinophils and other leukocytes.
B. Causes persistent airway tissue remodeling which permanently narrows the airways (due to
increase in the size and number of smooth muscle cells).
C. Chronic response becomes a type IV hypersensitivity

E. None, they are all correct

E. None, they are all correct

True or false: Urticaria (Hives) refers to swelling is at the surface of the skin

A. true

B. false

A. true

True or false: Angioedema refers to swelling in deeper layers of the skin

A. true

B. false

A. true

Allergens can be ____________ into the blood stream

A. avoided once

B. absorbed

C. injected

D. more than one is correct

D. more than one is correct (B,C)

True or false: Symptoms of Anaphylaxis are never mild and are always serious.

A. true

B. false

B. false

What is the most common food allergy at around 25%?

A. Corn

B. Soy

C. Peanut

D. Shellfish

C. Peanut

What treatment is being described:

used to prevent anaphylactic shock
 Stimulates reformation of tight junctions and relaxation of smooth muscle

A. Epinephrine

B. Corticosteroids

C. Anti-histamines

D. Monoclonal anti- IgE antibody (omalizumab)

A. Epinephrine

What treatment is being described:

relieve symptoms of rhino-conjunctivitis and urticaria
 Block histamine receptor

A. Epinephrine

B. Corticosteroids

C. Anti-histamines

D. Monoclonal anti- IgE antibody (omalizumab)

C. Anti-histamines

What treatment is being described:

promote dilation of bronchial smooth muscle

A. Epinephrine

B. Corticosteroids

C. Anti-histamines

D. Monoclonal anti- IgE antibody (omalizumab)

B. Corticosteroids

What treatment is being described:

Prevents IgE binding to IgE receptors
 Used to control chronic asthma

A. Epinephrine

B. Corticosteroids

C. Anti-histamines

D. Monoclonal anti- IgE antibody (omalizumab)

D. Monoclonal anti- IgE antibody (omalizumab)

True or false: An allergen modifies a host cell surface antigen making it a into a foreign antigen not normally present in the body

A. true

B. false

A. true

Immune responses are carried out by __________________________

A. Antigens in the complexes

B. Antibodies in the complexes

C. Antibodies in only one part of the body

D. Antigens in only one part of the body

B. Antibodies in the complexes

True or false: Type IV Hypersensitivity
 Immune response is due to actions of effector T-cells

A. true

B. false

A. true

What type of reactions are called delayed hypersensitivity reactions as symptoms occur within 24-48 hours

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

E. Type V

D. Type IV

What is this definition describing?: donor and recipient have compatible surface antigens

A. Alloreaction

B. Alloantigens

C. Histocompatibility

D. autograph

C. Histocompatibility

What is this definition describing?: antigens that differ between members of the same species.
 Examples: MHC molecules, ABO antigens

A. Alloreaction

B. Alloantigens

C. Histocompatibility

D. autograph

B. Alloantigens

What is this definition describing?:an immune response against alloantigens

A. Alloreaction

B. Alloantigens

C. Histocompatibility

D. autograph

A. Alloreaction

What is this definition describing?: transplantation of a tissue from one site to another on the same individual
 Can be performed with 100% success; perfect
histocompatibility

A. Alloreaction

B. Alloantigens

C. Histocompatibility

D. autograft

D. autograft

What is this definition describing?: transplant between identical twins
 Can be performed with 100% success; (near) perfect
histocompatibility

A. Allograft

B. Autograft

C. Isograft

D. mesograft

C. Isograft

What is this definition describing?: transplant between genetically different individuals
 Never perfect histocompatibility

A. Allograft

B. Autograft

C. Isograft

D. mesograft

A. Allograft

True or false: Blood is the most commonly transplanted tissue?

A. True

B. false

A. True

Which blood type of the universal donor?

A. Blood type B RhD-

B. Blood type O RhD-

C. Blood type A RhD+

D. Blood Type AB RhD+

B. Blood type O RhD-

Which blood type of the universal acceptor?

A. Blood type B RhD-

B. Blood type O RhD-

C. Blood type A RhD+

D. Blood Type AB RhD+

D. Blood Type AB RhD+

An immune response to alloantigens contributes _______ to loss of function of solid organ transplants

A. none at all

B. little

C. greatly

D. none of the above

C. greatly

True or false: When describing solid organ transplantations, the definition describes it as Long-term survival rates of kidney transplants are higher if there is MHC histocompatibility

A. true

B. false

A. true

Hyper acute rejection is caused by __________

A. New antigenes

B. existing antibodies

C. Existing antigens

D. New antibodies

B. existing antibodies

What mechanisms are involved in acute rejections?:

A. Indefinite recognition

B. Indirect recognition

C. Absolute recognition

D. direct recognition

E. more than one is correct

E. more than one is correct (B,D)

Which one is not a Source of hematopoietic stem cells

A. bone marrow

B. peripheral blood

C. umbilical cord
D. blood

E. They are all a source of hematopoietic stem cells

E. They are all a source of hematopoietic stem cells

True or false: Graft-versus-host disease (GCHD is caused by donor T-cells attacking recipient tissues

A. true

B. false

A. true

True or false: Autoimmune response is not an immune response against self-antigens.

A. true

B. false

B. false (it is)

Which of the following is not a example of type II response?:

A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

B. Goodpasture’s syndrome

C. Grave’s disease

D. Myasthenia gravis

B. Goodpasture’s syndrome

Which of the following is a example of type III response?:

A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

B. Grave’s disease

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D. Myasthenia gravis

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Which of the following is not a example of type IV response?:

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Multiple sclerosis

C. Type 1 diabetes

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

True or false: Susceptibility to autoimmune disease is
consistently associated with MHC genotype

A. true

B. false

A. true