ABPSYCH 1&2 PRELIM

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344 Terms

1
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What is clinical assessment?

The systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in an individual presenting with a possible psychological disorder.

2
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What is the purpose of diagnosis in mental health?

To determine whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets all criteria for a psychological disorder as outlined in the DSM-5.

3
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How is the process of clinical assessment likened?

It is likened to a funnel, where a large amount of information is gathered initially and then narrowed down to focus on the most relevant areas.

4
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What are the three basic concepts that determine the value of assessments?

Reliability, validity, and standardization.

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What does reliability refer to in psychological assessment?

The degree to which a measurement is consistent across different raters or over time.

6
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What is interrater reliability?

A method to improve reliability by ensuring that two or more raters get the same answer.

7
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What is test-retest reliability?

A method that determines whether assessment techniques remain consistent over time.

8
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What is validity in the context of psychological assessment?

Whether an assessment measures what it is designed to measure.

9
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What is concurrent or descriptive validity?

A comparison of the results of an assessment measure with those of others that are better known to determine its validity.

10
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What is predictive validity?

A type of validity that indicates how well an assessment predicts future outcomes, such as success in school based on IQ tests.

11
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What is standardization in psychological assessment?

The process of establishing a set of standards or norms for a technique to ensure consistent use across different measurements.

12
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What factors are considered in the standardization process?

Age, race, gender, socioeconomic status, and diagnosis.

13
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What are some strategies and procedures involved in clinical assessment?

Clinical interview, mental status exam, comprehensive physical examination, behavioral observation and assessment, and psychological tests.

14
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What is the core of most clinical work in mental health?

The clinical interview.

15
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What challenges might clinicians face when assessing someone like Frank?

Determining whether he has a psychological disorder or is experiencing normal stresses related to a new marriage.

16
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What is the significance of reliable, valid, and standardized practices in psychological assessment?

They are essential for consistent and accurate evaluations.

17
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What is the role of a mental status exam in clinical assessment?

To evaluate a patient's cognitive, emotional, and psychological functioning.

18
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Why is a comprehensive physical examination included in clinical assessment?

To rule out any physical health issues that may be contributing to psychological symptoms.

19
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What is behavioral observation in the context of clinical assessment?

The process of observing a patient's behavior to gather information about their psychological state.

20
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What are psychological tests used for in clinical assessment?

To measure various psychological constructs and aid in diagnosis.

21
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How does the clinical interview help clinicians?

It provides a structured way to gather information about the patient's history, symptoms, and concerns.

22
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What might indicate the need for marital counseling in a case like Frank's?

His severe distress and anxiety related to marital problems.

23
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What is the DSM-5?

The fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, which outlines criteria for psychological disorders.

24
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What is the purpose of the clinical interview in mental health assessment?

To collect data on current and past behavior, attitudes, emotions, and detailed life history, including the presenting problem.

25
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What concurrent events do clinicians identify during the clinical interview?

Clinicians identify when the problem started and other concurrent events such as life stress, trauma, or physical illness.

26
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What types of personal history do clinicians gather during the interview?

Clinicians gather information on interpersonal and social history, including family makeup, sexual development, religious attitudes, cultural concerns, and educational history.

27
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What is a mental status exam?

A systematic observation of an individual's behavior that organizes information obtained during an interview.

28
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What are the five categories covered in a mental status exam?

  1. Appearance and behavior 2. Thought processes 3. Mood and affect 4. Intellectual functioning 5. Sensorium.
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What does the 'Appearance and behavior' category assess?

It assesses overt physical behaviors, dress, general appearance, posture, and facial expression.

30
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What might slow and effortful motor behavior indicate?

It may indicate severe depression.

31
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What aspects of thought processes are evaluated in a mental status exam?

Clinicians assess speech rate, flow, continuity, coherence of ideas, and look for delusions and hallucinations.

32
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What are delusions of persecution?

Delusions where an individual believes they are constantly pursued and targeted.

33
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What are delusions of grandeur?

Delusions where individuals perceive themselves as all-powerful.

34
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What does the mood and affect category evaluate?

Mood reflects the prevailing emotional state, while affect pertains to the emotional state accompanying spoken words.

35
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What is an 'inappropriate' effect in a mental status exam?

An emotional response that does not align with the content, such as laughing at news of a death.

36
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What does a 'blunted' or 'flat' effect indicate?

An emotional display that is minimal or absent, even when discussing emotional topics.

37
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How do clinicians assess intellectual functioning?

Through conversation, evaluating articulation, vocabulary, ability to engage in abstractions, and memory.

38
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What does the sensorium category assess?

General awareness of surroundings, including knowledge of date, time, location, and identity.

39
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What does 'oriented times three' mean in a mental status exam?

The patient is clear about their identity, the clinician, and has a good grasp of time and place.

40
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What is the difference between unstructured and semistructured interviews?

Unstructured interviews follow no systematic format, while semistructured interviews consist of carefully phrased questions to elicit consistent and useful information.

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What is an example of a semistructured interview?

The Anxiety and Related Disorders Interview Schedule for DSM-5.

42
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Why might patients with psychological issues undergo a physical examination?

They often start with a family physician to rule out any physical health issues contributing to their psychological symptoms.

43
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What may a clinician recommend if a patient with psychological concerns hasn't had a recent physical exam?

A clinician may recommend a physical exam focusing on medical conditions associated with the specific psychological problem.

44
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What can disorders of behavior, cognition, or mood reveal during a physical examination?

They may reveal a clear link to a temporary toxic state caused by factors like nutrient deficiencies, incorrect medication, or the onset of a medical condition.

45
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How do clinicians determine if a medical condition or substance abuse is coincidental or causal?

Clinicians examine the onset of the problem to make this determination.

46
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What might indicate a substance-induced mood disorder in a patient?

If depression arose simultaneously with sedative use and improved upon discontinuation.

47
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What is the purpose of a mental status exam in psychological assessment?

It assesses people's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, exploring potential connections to their problems.

48
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Why is behavioral assessment often more suitable than interviews for certain individuals?

Behavioral assessment is more suitable for individuals who may not communicate effectively due to age or skill level.

49
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What challenges can arise in identifying target behaviors during behavioral assessment?

Identifying target behaviors can be challenging due to discrepancies in descriptions from parents and teachers.

50
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What is the significance of direct observation in naturalistic settings for understanding problems?

It is often deemed necessary to comprehensively understand someone's problems.

51
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What are analogues in the context of behavioral assessment?

Analogues are arranged similar settings when practical constraints prevent naturalistic observation.

52
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What was the focus of the research study conducted by Durand et al. (2013)?

The study focused on understanding the reasons behind self-hitting behavior in autistic children.

53
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What does observational assessment focus on?

It focuses on antecedents, behavior, and consequences.

54
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What is an example of an antecedent in behavioral observation?

A mother asking the boy to put his glass in the sink.

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What is meant by 'behavior' in the context of observational assessment?

The individual's reaction or behavior to the antecedent.

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What is an example of a consequence in behavioral observation?

The mother's lack of response after the boy threw the glass.

57
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What is a drawback of informal observation?

It relies on the observer's recollection and interpretation of events.

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What does formal observation involve in behavioral assessment?

It involves identifying specific observable and measurable behaviors, known as operational definitions.

59
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Why might it be difficult to agree on what 'having an attitude' looks like?

Because it is subjective and lacks a clear operational definition.

60
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What innovative techniques do researchers use to study psychological disorders?

Researchers may employ techniques like hypnosis to induce symptoms in controlled ways.

61
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What is the role of antecedents in behavioral assessment?

Antecedents are events that occur just before a behavior, helping to identify triggers.

62
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What is the importance of consequences in behavioral assessment?

Consequences are what happens after a behavior, which can influence future behavior.

63
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How can behavioral assessment help in developing effective treatments?

By identifying factors contributing to problematic behaviors, it guides the development of targeted interventions.

64
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What might a clinician do to better understand a child's behavior in a home setting?

A clinician might visit the home to observe the child's behavior in a natural context.

65
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What can be a consequence of a clinician's lack of response to a child's behavior?

It may reinforce the problematic behavior or lead to further issues.

66
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What is an operational definition in behavior observation?

An operational definition clarifies behavior by specifying it as 'any time the boy does not comply with his mother's reasonable requests.'

67
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What is the purpose of collecting observational data in behavior analysis?

The goal is to identify patterns of behavior and design a treatment based on these patterns.

68
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What is self-monitoring in the context of behavior observation?

Self-monitoring is the technique where individuals observe their own behavior to find patterns.

69
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What tools are used for structured behavior observation?

Checklists and behavior rating scales are used as assessment tools before and during treatment.

70
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What does the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale assess?

It assesses 18 general areas of concern, rating symptoms on a 7-point scale from 0 (not present) to 6 (extremely severe).

71
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What types of disorders does the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale screen for?

It screens for moderate to severe psychotic disorders.

72
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What is reactivity in observational data?

Reactivity refers to the phenomenon where the presence of an observer may cause individuals to change their behavior.

73
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What are psychological tests used for?

They are tools to determine cognitive, emotional, or behavioral responses associated with specific disorders.

74
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What role did Sigmund Freud play in psychological testing?

He highlighted the role of unconscious processes in psychological disorders, leading to the development of projective tests.

75
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What is the purpose of projective tests?

They assess thoughts and feelings that individuals may not be consciously aware of by presenting ambiguous stimuli.

76
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Who developed the Rorschach inkblot test and what is its purpose?

Hermann Rorschach developed it to study perceptual processes and diagnose psychological disorders.

77
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How many inkblot pictures are included in the Rorschach test?

The Rorschach test includes 10 inkblot pictures.

78
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What is the Comprehensive System in relation to the Rorschach test?

Developed by John Exner, it is a standardized version of the Rorschach test that specifies administration and scoring procedures.

79
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Why is the Rorschach test controversial?

Its early use lacked data on reliability and validity, leading to ongoing debates about its effectiveness.

80
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What is the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?

A well-known projective test developed in 1935 by Christiana Morgan and Henry Murray, second only to the Rorschach.

81
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What is the main theory behind projective tests like the Rorschach?

The theory is that individuals project their personality and unconscious fears onto ambiguous stimuli.

82
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What is the significance of the 7-point scale in the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale?

It allows for the quantification of symptom severity from not present to extremely severe.

83
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What are some items assessed by the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale?

Items include somatic concern, guilt feelings, and grandiosity.

84
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What is the main criticism of the Rorschach test?

Critics question whether research supports its validity as an assessment technique for psychological disorders.

85
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What is the role of the examiner in the Rorschach test?

The examiner presents the inkblots and records the responses of the assessed person.

86
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What is the goal of using behavior rating scales during treatment?

To assess changes in the person's behavior periodically.

87
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What is the relationship between the observer and the observed in behavioral studies?

The observer's presence can influence the behavior of the individual being observed.

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What is the significance of the ambiguous stimuli in projective tests?

They are designed to elicit responses that reveal hidden thoughts and feelings.

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What is the primary purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?

To have test-takers create a dramatic story about pictures presented, revealing their unconscious mental processes.

90
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How does the TAT differ from the Rorschach test?

The TAT emphasizes imagination as a form of intelligence, while the Rorschach test requests straightforward descriptions.

91
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What is a major criticism of the TAT?

Its inconsistent use and interpretation, which depends on the examiner's frame of reference.

92
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What are personality inventories?

Self-report questionnaires that assess personal traits.

93
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Who influenced the study of personality inventories and what was his key point?

Paul Meehl; he emphasized that the predictive value of answers is more important than face validity.

94
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What is the most widely used personality inventory in the United States?

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).

95
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How does the MMPI differ from projective tests?

The MMPI is based on an empirical approach, relying on data collection and evaluation, unlike projective tests that depend on theoretical interpretation.

96
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What is the administration process for the MMPI?

Individuals read statements and answer 'true' or 'false'.

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What is a challenge associated with the MMPI?

The time and tedium involved in responding to its 567 items.

98
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How are responses to the MMPI evaluated?

The pattern of responses is reviewed to see if it resembles patterns from groups with specific disorders.

99
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What technological advancement aids in scoring the MMPI?

Computer scoring, which enhances reliability and interpretation of results.

100
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What are some validity scales included in the MMPI?

The Lie scale, Infrequency scale, and Subtle Defensiveness scale.