CompTIA CertMaster Learn Network+ Modules 1-6

A network engineer is configuring a point-to-point link between two routers on a WAN network. The link is intended to support a critical real-time application that requires continuous bidirectional data flow without any transmission delays.

Which type of communication should the engineer configure on the point-to-point link to meet the application's requirements?

A. Half-duplex communication with Quality of Service (QoS) prioritization to ensure real-time data is transmitted without delay.

B. Half-duplex communication, because it allows for two-way communication with a guaranteed level of bandwidth.

C. Full-duplex communication with multiple cables to increase the bandwidth and support the high data rate required by the application.

D. Full-duplex communication, as it supports simultaneous bidirectional data flow, which is essential for real-time applications.

D

At Layer 4 of the OSI model, which mechanism is responsible for ensuring reliable data delivery between hosts?

A. The use of port numbers to identify different types of network traffic

B. The encryption of data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission

C. The implementation of flow control and error-checking protocols

D. The assignment of IP addresses to route packets to their destination

C

A network technician wants to create efficiencies in network traffic by implementing a device which applies microsegmentation by establishing a point-to-point link between any two network nodes.

Which of the following should they implement?

A. Access Point

B. Hub

C. Layer 2 switch

D.Bridge

C

Which function of the SOHO router is responsible for allocating a unique IP address to each host that connects to it?

A. Network Address Translation (NAT)

B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)

C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

D. Quality of Service (QoS)

C

You are a network administrator troubleshooting an issue where a client computer is not properly receiving and handling different types of network traffic.

You suspect that the problem lies with the de-multiplexing process at the Transport layer of the OSI model.

Which of the following scenarios would MOST likely indicate a problem with the de-multiplexing process at the receiving host? (Select two.)

A. The client computer receives a VoIP packet and correctly processes it as audio data.

B. The client computer is experiencing slow network speeds due to congestion.

C. The client computer is unable to establish a connection to the web server on port 80.

D. The client computer is not receiving any packets from the network.

E. The client computer receives an email data packet but processes it as web traffic.

A, E

You want to implement a fault-tolerant topology as you connect routers on your wide area network.

Which of the following topologies BEST meets your requirements?

A. Bus

B. Mesh

C. Ring

D. Star

B

A network administrator notices that communication to a particular node in a star topology network consistently fails.

The node is located at a significant distance from the central switch, further than any other node on the network. The administrator suspects that the distance may be causing signal degradation.

What is the MOST appropriate solution to resolve this issue?

A. Increase the bandwidth of the central switch.

B. Use a repeater to strengthen the signal over the extended distance.

C. Replace the switch with a hub to increase signal strength.

D. Implement a mesh topology for the entire network.

B

Which of the following layers are part of the four-layer hierarchy of the Internet model? (Select two.)

A. Presentation Layer

B. Application Layer

C. Internet Layer

D. Physical Layer

E. Session Layer

B, C

Which of the following statements accurately describe characteristics of the decimal numbering system? (Select two.)

A. Each digit can have one of ten possible values.

B. Each digit can have one of two possible values.

C. A digit positioned to the left of another has 10 times the value of the digit to the right.

D. Each digit represents a power of 2.

E. It is primarily used for representing binary data.

A, C

Your company has a network where each device is connected to a central hub via separate cables. What type of network topology does this BEST describe?

A. Ring topology

B. Mesh topology

C. Physical topology

D. Logical topology

C

What should you do when you discover symptoms of more than one problem while investigating a user's system issue?

A. Advise the user to only report the most severe problem to avoid complicating the troubleshooting process.

B. Immediately escalate all discovered problems to a higher-level support team without further investigation.

C. Focus on the most complex problem first, assuming solving it will automatically resolve the others.

D. Treat each problem as a separate case, even if they seem related.

D

A systems administrator wants to ensure that port numbers are being appropriately assigned for each type of network application.

What layer of the OSI model should the administrator be reviewing to ensure these actions are taken?

A. Transport

B. Session

C. Network

D. Application

A

You receive reports from several employees in the marketing department that they are unable to access the company's internal marketing database, a server within your local network.

After questioning, you determine that the issue is isolated to the marketing department. You decide to use the top-to-bottom OSI model approach to troubleshoot the issue.

Using the top-to-bottom approach, which of the following steps should you take first to troubleshoot the connectivity issue experienced by the marketing department?

A. Confirm that the switches and routers connecting the marketing department to the server are functioning correctly.

B. Check to see if the server hosting the database is properly configured at the application layer.

C. Verify the physical connections, such as cables and NICs, in the marketing department.

D. Ensure that the IP addresses are correctly assigned to the marketing department's computers.

D

When verifying a solution to a reported problem, what is the primary goal?

A. To implement additional features unrelated to the problem

B. To validate that the solution fixes the reported problem without affecting the system's overall functionality

C. To change the system's configuration settings

D. To ensure the system functions faster than before

B

You receive reports from several departments that users are experiencing intermittent network connectivity issues: slow internet speeds, inability to access network drives, and occasional disconnect from the email server. Given the symptoms and the fact that they are affecting multiple departments, you decide to troubleshoot the issue.

What is the BEST approach to begin troubleshooting the connectivity issues?

A. Methodically prove the functionality of each component in the network system, starting from the user access layer and moving towards the core network infrastructure.

B. Check the organization's internet usage policy to ensure no department is exceeding its bandwidth allocation.

C. Restart all user devices in the affected departments to see if the issues resolve themselves.

D. Send a memo to all employees asking them to refrain from using the Internet for non-work related activities to reduce network load.

A

A freelance photographer is setting up a home office. They need to connect a desktop, a laptop, a network printer, and occasionally, guests' devices to the Internet and to each other for file sharing and printing.

Which type of network is MOST suitable for this scenario?

A. PAN (Personal Area Network)

B. SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) Network

C. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

D. CAN (Campus Area Network)

B

You are setting up a small office network with several computers, a printer, and a network storage device. All devices are connected to a single switch.

You want to ensure that each device can communicate with the others on the network. To facilitate this communication, you need to consider the type of addressing that is used at the Data Link layer.

What type of address is used at the Data Link layer to ensure each device can communicate with the others on the same network segment?

A. Port numbers assigned by the network applications

B. MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface

C. Hostnames configured by the network administrator

D. IP addresses assigned by a DHCP server

B

You've implemented a network where each device provides all other devices on the network with access to shared files.

Which type of network have you implemented?

A. Multiple access

B. Client-server

C. Polling

D. Peer-to-peer

D

When troubleshooting a problem, which of the following are typical solutions? (Select three.)

A. Repair

B. Accept

C. Escalate

D. Ignore

E. Replace

F. Postpone

G. Outsource

A, B, E

How is Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) connected to the local loop?

A. Through a direct satellite link

B. Using an infrared signal

C. Through a wireless Bluetooth connection

D. Via its modem and WAN port

D

What is a major difference when comparing Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) to CWDM?

A. DWDM requires less precise lasers than CWDM.

B. DWDM is typically used for shorter distance transmissions than CWDM.

C. DWDM supports fewer channels than CWDM.

D. DWDM provisions greater numbers of channels with much less spacing between each channel.

D

A network administrator is trying to figure out which switch will be rooted in a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) setup

Which of the following would determine the root?

A. Lowest ID

B. BPDU

C. Highest ID

D. DPs

A

Which IEEE standard is typically implemented for link aggregation?

A. IEEE 802.16

B. IEEE 802.11

C. IEEE 802.3ad/802.1ax

D. IEEE 802.15.4

C

What does the first half of a MAC address represent?

A. The manufacturer's unique identifier

B. The network segment identifier

C. The IP address of the device

D. The serial number of the device

A

You are configuring a network analyzer to monitor traffic on your company's network. Your primary goal is to capture IPv4 and IPv6 traffic for analysis. To achieve this, you decide to filter traffic based on the EtherType field in Ethernet frames.

Given your objective, which EtherType values should you configure the network analyzer to filter for?

A. 0x0600 for IPv4 and 0x0800 for IPv6

B. 0x86DD for both IPv4 and IPv6

C. 0x0600 for both IPv4 and IPv6

D. 0x0800 for IPv4 and 0x86DD for IPv6

D

What is the consequence of a network loop causing a broadcast storm?

A. Increased network security

B. Network becomes unresponsive due to high utilization

C. Improved network performance

D. Decreased CPU utilization in switches

B

As a network engineer, you are tasked with troubleshooting intermittent network issues that have been reported by users in your organization. You suspect that some of the Ethernet frames being transmitted across the network might be corrupted.

To confirm your suspicion, you decide to utilize a tool that analyzes Ethernet frames for errors. Specifically, you want to focus on the integrity of the frames by examining a particular field within them.

Which field should you instruct the tool to analyze for detecting potential frame corruption?

A. Start Frame Delimiter (SFD)

B. Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

C. EtherType

D. Preamble

B

What is contained within the error checking field of an Ethernet frame?

A. The frame payload

B. A 32-bit checksum known as a Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

C. The preamble and Start Frame Delimiter (SFD)

D. The frame length

B

What is the primary difference between modular and fixed switches?

A. Fixed switches allow for configuration of settings, while modular switches operate with fixed settings.

B. Fixed switches have a set number of ports that cannot be changed, whereas modular switches can be configured with different numbers and types of ports.

C. Modular switches cannot be connected together, whereas fixed switches can form a switch stack.

D. Modular switches are designed for desktop use, while fixed switches are rack-mounted.

B

What distinguishes a managed switch from an unmanaged switch in a network environment?

A. An unmanaged switch supports high-speed backplanes and expandable capacity, while a managed switch does not.

B. A managed switch allows for configuration of its settings, whereas an unmanaged switch operates with fixed settings and cannot be configured.

C. Managed switches are exclusively used in SOHO networks, whereas unmanaged switches are used in corporate networks.

D. A managed switch cannot be added to the network without extensive configuration, while an unmanaged switch can operate without any configuration.

B

What is a likely cause of cyclic redundancy check (CRC) errors?

A. Interference affecting the signal quality

B. Low network traffic

C. A stable and strong signal

D. Identical duplex settings on connected devices

A

You are tasked with configuring a new switch to ensure that a specific port, GigabitEthernet 0/3, is only used by a device with a known MAC address for security reasons.

Which of the following steps and commands are necessary to achieve this?

A. Enter interface configuration mode for GigabitEthernet 0/3, enable port security, and then specify the allowed MAC address.

B. Set the switch port to trunk mode and specify the allowed VLANs.

C. Enable DHCP snooping on the switch to track the device's MAC address.

D. Directly specify the allowed MAC address in the global configuration mode.

A

How can a broadcast storm be mitigated if spanning tree is already enabled?

A. Increase the bandwidth of the network.

B. Disable all switches on the network.

C. Verify compatible versions of Spanning Tree Protocol are enabled on all switches.

D. Remove all MAC addresses from the MAC address table.

C

You are configuring a network that includes a mix of devices, some of which support jumbo frames and others that do not. You need to ensure optimal performance while maintaining compatibility across the network.

What is the BEST approach to configuring the MTU settings on your devices?

A. Configure devices that support jumbo frames to use the maximum size available and leave others at their default settings.

B. Configure all devices to use the maximum jumbo frame size supported by any device on the network.

C. Identify the highest MTU supported by all devices and configure each device to use this MTU.

D. Configure all devices to use the standard MTU of 1500 bytes.

D

Why are all ports on a hub considered to be in the same collision domain?

A. Because hubs repeat signals to all ports, sharing the same bandwidth and media access

B. Because hubs use a special protocol to prevent collisions from occurring

C. Because hubs are typically used in networks that do not experience collisions

D. Because hubs can intelligently direct traffic to avoid collisions

A

What is the purpose of the detection phase in a PoE switch?

A. To identify whether the connected device is PoE-enabled and determine its power consumption

B. To test the strength of the Ethernet cable

C. To encrypt the data being transmitted to the device

D. To determine the optimal data transmission rate

A

Which of the following is NOT a component of a standard Ethernet frame header?

A. Destination and source MAC address fields

B. EtherType field

C. Error checking field

D. Payload size indicator

D

What improvement does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) offer over the original 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

A. Outages lasting tens of seconds

B. Longer convergence times

C. Elimination of the listening state

D. Increased number of port states

C

What is the primary purpose of a Multi-Source Agreement (MSA) in the context of modular transceivers?

A. To decrease the cost of transceivers

B. To standardize the size of transceivers

C. To ensure compatibility between transceivers from different vendors

D. To increase the data transmission speed of transceivers

C

Which of the following commands transitions a user from User EXEC mode to Privileged EXEC mode in a Cisco device?

A. configure terminal

B. terminal length 0

C. enable

D. exit

C

What is the primary purpose of using the show mac address-table command in troubleshooting network issues?

A. To list the IP addresses assigned to all devices on the network

B. To display the routing table of a switch

C. To reset the MAC address table on the switch

D. To identify the MAC addresses associated with a particular switch port

D

You are overseeing the installation of a new fiber optic network in an office building. The network design includes a central switch connected to various endpoints throughout the building using fiber optic cables.

To ensure a successful installation, you need to select the appropriate type of fiber optic patch cords for connecting the endpoints to the switch. The network requires high data transmission quality with minimal back reflection.

Which type of fiber optic patch cord finishing should you choose?

A. Angled Physical Contact (APC) finishing

B. Basic Contact (BC) finishing

UC. ltraPhysical Contact (UPC) finishing

D. Physical Contact (PC) finishing

C

Which type of conductor wire is typically used for cables that run behind walls or through ducts?

A. Solid

B. Stranded

C. Fiber optic

D. Coaxial

A

A company tasks its network specialist with configuring a steel shelving system for patch panels, switches and routers, and server devices.

What is the name of this system?

A. Change Management

B. Rack

C. Floor Plan

D. Wiring Diagram

B

What is the MOST significant disadvantage of using copper cabling for networking?

A. High attenuation over long distances

B. Low data transmission speeds

C. Immunity to electromagnetic interference

D. Difficulty of installation

B

What is the maximum amount of untwisting allowed for Cat 6 cables during termination?

A. 0.5 inches (1.27 cm)

B. 0.375 inches (1 cm)

C. 1 inch (2.54 cm)

D. 2 inches (5.08 cm)

B

What mark is given to plenum-rated data cable under the US National Electrical Code (NEC)?

A. CMP/MMP

B. CMG/MMG

C. CMR/MPR

D. CM/MP

A

What are the potential causes of intermittent loss of connectivity in a cabling system? (Select two.)

A. Properly terminated cabling

B. Crosstalk

C. Excessive untwisting at the cable ends

D. Use of fiber optic cables instead of copper

E. Attenuation

C, E

Which of the following factors can adversely affect network throughput? (Select two.)

A. The color of the Ethernet cables

B. Link distance

C. Interference (noise)

D. The brand of network routers used

E. Encoding schemes

B, C

What does it indicate if an LED fails to light up or does not light in sequence during a wire map test?

A. There is a problem with the cable and/or termination.

B. The cable is of high quality.

C. The cable is shielded.

D. The cable length is too long.

A

You are tasked with installing structured cable from a bulk spool in a new office building. You need to ensure that the cable runs from the telecommunications closet to multiple work areas.

Which of the following steps is crucial to ensure a successful installation?

A. Pulling the cable through conduits or wall spaces, avoiding excessive bends and proximity to electrical power cables

B. Running the cable directly over fluorescent lights to minimize the distance covered

C. Bundling as many cables as possible, regardless of their destination, to speed up the installation process

D. Cutting the cable into predetermined lengths before routing it through the building

A

Which organizations have created categories of cable standards for twisted pair to simplify the selection of a suitable quality cable?

A. IEEE and IETF

B. ISO and IEC

C. ITU and ETSI

D. ANSI and TIA/EIA

D

Which of the following BEST describes riser data cable?

A. Cable that is only used for fiber optic connections

B. Cable that is used for horizontal runs within a single floor

C. Cable that is specifically designed for outdoor use and exposure to the elements

D. Cable that passes between two floors and must be fire-stopped

D

Which of the following is a correct statement about the installation of rack-mounted appliances?

A. Appliances can be screwed directly into the rack if there is little need for maintenance.

B. Non-standard components cannot be installed in racks under any circumstances.

C. Appliances should always be installed on the topmost rack for easy access.

D. All appliances must be installed using rail kits for safety reasons.

A

A network technician is researching standards for the physical and data link layer.

Which standard, developed to implement the functions of the physical and data link layers of the OSI model, is the most important?

A. 802.3

B. 802.1D

C. 802.11

D. 802.1X

A

What is the primary function of blanking plates in a rack system?

A. To provide additional support to the equipment

B. To increase the rack's weight capacity

C. To improve airflow

D. To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the rack

C

Which combination correctly represents the three elements of the fire triangle?

A. Oxygen, electricity, and fuel

B. Heat, fuel, and carbon dioxide

C. Oxygen, heat, and water

D. Oxygen, heat, and fuel

D

You are tasked with designing a structured cabling system for a new office building. The building has three floors, and each floor will have its own intermediate distribution frame (IDF) to connect the work areas on that floor to the network.

You need to ensure that the cabling system adheres to standard requirements for horizontal cabling.

Which of the following practices should you follow to ensure compliance with standard requirements for horizontal cabling?

A. Use wireless access points as the primary means of connecting each floor's work areas to the IDF.

B. Connect each work area directly to the main distribution frame (MDF), bypassing the IDFs.

C. Install solar panels on the roof to power the IDFs and reduce the need for horizontal cabling.

D. Ensure that the horizontal cabling from each work area to its respective IDF does not exceed 90 m (295 feet) in length when using copper cabling.

D

What is the primary purpose of twisting the pairs in an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable?

A. To reduce external interference and crosstalk

B. To color-code the cable for easier identification

C. To make the cable more flexible

D. To increase the cable's thickness

A

You are leading a team responsible for the network cabling of a large corporate building. After completing the installation, you plan to ensure that the network meets TIA/EIA 568 Category 6A compliance.

Your team has access to various tools, but you want to choose the most appropriate one to certify that the installation exceeds the required performance characteristics for parameters such as attenuation and crosstalk.

Which tool should you select for this task?

A. A high-end cable certifier

B. A simple multimeter

C. A wireless signal strength meter

D. A basic cable continuity tester

A

Which of the following statements correctly describes the wiring configuration for T568A termination?

A. The orange pair is wired to pins 1 and 2.

B. The green pair is wired to pins 1 and 2.

C. The blue pair is wired to pins 3 and 6.

D. The brown pair is wired to pins 3 and 6.

B

Which of the following are the main types of copper cabling used in networking? (Select two.)

A. USB

B. Fiber optic

C. Twisted pair

D. Coaxial (coax)

E. HDMI

C, D

Which type of optical fiber is normally used to connect two buildings that are several kilometers apart?

A. Single-mode fiber

B. Multi-mode fiber

C. Coaxial cable

D. Shielded twisted pair

A

A company is upgrading its legacy network infrastructure. The existing network is based on 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet with a mix of hubs and switches. The IT manager wants to improve network performance while maintaining compatibility with older devices that only support 10 Mbps Ethernet interfaces.

What feature should the IT manager ensure the new network devices support to maintain compatibility with older devices?

A. Autonegotiation

B. Higher frequency signaling

C. Use of hubs instead of switches

D. Full-duplex transmissions

A

What does the term "speed" refer to in the context of network performance?

A. The color coding of Ethernet cables for different network segments

B. The physical durability of network cables

C. The time it takes for a packet to travel from its source to its destination, also known as latency

D. The maximum capacity of a network switch

C

A university campus is upgrading its network to enhance connectivity between its library and the computer science department, which are 500 meters apart. The upgrade aims to facilitate intensive data exchange for research purposes, including large datasets and high-definition video streaming.

Given the distance and the high bandwidth requirements, which type of cable should the university use?

A. Satellite Link

B. Single Mode Fiber (SMF)

C. Cat 6 UTP Cable

D. Multimode Fiber (MMF)

D

A school wants to expand its network to accommodate new classrooms and administrative offices. Currently, it is based on the 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet standard with a combination of hubs and switches.

They want to add 50 new workstations, they will be distributed across the school, some 90 meters away from the nearest network device.

The IT team is considering the best approach to integrate these new workstations into the existing network while ensuring optimal performance and compatibility with potential future upgrades.

What should they prioritize to ensure the success of the new workstations into the existing 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet network in the MOST effective way?

A. Extend the fiber optic backbone to each new workstation.

B. Use fiber optic cables for all new horizontal links.

C. Implement autonegotiation on all network devices.

D. Replace all existing hubs with switches to reduce collision domains.

D

During a network upgrade, you are consulting with a small business owner who is deciding between using T568A or T568B for their new Ethernet infrastructure.

The business is located in a residential area, and the owner plans to use the network for both business and personal devices. The owner is seeking your advice on which standard to choose.

Based on the business owner's situation, what would you recommend?

A. Choose T568A because it is mandated by the residential cabling standard.

B. Choose T568A because it is cheaper to implement than T568B.

C. Choose T568B because it is more secure than T568A.

D. Choose T568B because it offers higher data transfer speeds.

A

You maintain the network for an industrial manufacturing company. A short-circuit of a switch in the server room starts an electrical fire.

Which of the following should you use to suppress the fire? (Select two.)

A. Water-Based (Wet-Pipe) Sprinkler System

B. Clean Agent Fire Suppression System (such as FM-200/HFC-227)

C. Dry-Pipe Sprinkler System

D. Class C Fire Extinguisher

E. CO2 Fire Extinguisher

B, D

A university's IT department is tasked with connecting two campus buildings with a high-speed data link to support current and future network traffic. They are 3km apart, and there is an existing SMF cable.

They want to maximize the use of this fiber strand to support multiple high-speed data channels services including internet, video, and secure admin data transfers.

Given the above, what WDM solution should they use?

A. Deploy Simplex Wavelength Division Multiplexing (SWDM) for its advanced single-direction data transmission capabilities.

B. Utilize Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) to support up to 16 channels on the existing infrastructure.

C. Utilize Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) to ensure maximum scalability and support for future growth.

D. Implement Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BiDi) for its simplicity and cost-effectiveness.

B

A company is planning to restructure its network into multiple subnets to improve security and manageability. The network needs to support four departments: Sales, Marketing, HR, and IT.

Each department requires its own subnet. Additionally, the company wants to reserve two subnets for future expansion.

How many subnets are required in total?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 2

D. 4

A

What does a failure to ping the loopback address indicate?

A. The need to reinstall the network protocol stack

B. A security issue such as a switch port security issue

C. A configuration error with the host's IP address

D. A faulty network adapter or adapter driver

A

What happens when an ARP query is sent?

A. It is sent directly to the router for processing.

B. It is sent as a multicast to a group of devices.

C. It is sent as a unicast to a specific device.

D. It is sent as a broadcast to all devices on the network.

D

Which of the following statements is true regarding the binary representation of odd and even numbers in an IPv4 address?

A. Both odd and even numbers can end in either binary 0 or 1.

B. Even numbers end in a binary 1.

C. Odd numbers end in a binary 1.

D. Odd numbers end in a binary 0.

C

What is the length of the network ID portion in an IPv6 address?

A. 128 bits

B. 64 bits

C. 32 bits

D. 48 bits

B

An organization is deploying an IPv6 network and has been allocated the prefix 2001:db8:abcd::/48. They plan to create subnets for 10 different departments.

Each department should have the capability to further divide its subnet into smaller subnets in the future.

Which of the following subnet allocations would best suit the organization's needs for one of its departments?

A. 2001:db8:abcd:0001::/64

B. 2001:db8:abcd:0010::/60

C. 2001:db8:abcd:0f00::/52

D. 2001:db8:abcd:0100::/56

D

What is the maximum possible value for any octet in an IPv4 address?

A. 256

B. 192

C. 255

D. 128

C

What is the role of routers in handling broadcast traffic?

A. Routers do not forward broadcast traffic, except under specially configured circumstances.

B. Routers convert broadcast traffic into unicast traffic for efficient delivery.

C. Routers forward broadcast traffic by default.

D. Routers ignore broadcast traffic entirely.

A

A university is setting up a new network infrastructure for its campus. The network design needs to accommodate four different subnets for the Administration, Library, Dormitories, and Laboratories.

The requirements for the number of IP addresses for each subnet are as follows: Administration requires 30 IP addresses, Library needs 14 IP addresses, Dormitories require 60 IP addresses, and Laboratories need 28 IP addresses. The university has been allocated a /24 network.

Using VLSM, how should the network engineer allocate the subnet sizes to minimize IP address wastage?

A. /26 for Dormitories, /27 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /28 for Library

B. /25 for Dormitories, /26 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /27 for Library

C. /26 for Dormitories, /27 for Laboratories, /28 for Administration, /28 for Library

D. /26 for Dormitories, /26 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /27 for Library

C

A company wants to improve flow and reduce IP address waste. The network is divided into 5 segments: Research, Development, Sales, Customer Support, and Management.

The IP reqs: Research 50 adds, Development 100 adds, Sales 25 adds, Customer Support 30 adds, and Management 10 adds.

The company has a /23 network. Using VLSM, the netadmin allocates subnet sizes based on these reqs. After, the admin realizes there are lots of unused adds.

What is the MOST likely reason for this inefficiency?

A. The administrator did not allocate the largest subnet sizes possible for each segment.

B. The administrator allocated subnet sizes based strictly on current requirements without considering future growth.

C. The administrator did not properly calculate the subnet sizes, leading to an overestimation of needs.

D. The administrator allocated subnet sizes without considering the hierarchical structure of IP address allocation.

D

At which layer of the OSI model does troubleshooting IP configuration issues primarily take place?

A. Transport Layer

B. Physical Layer

C. Network Layer

D. Data Link Layer

C

A cybersecurity analyst is investigating a series of suspicious network activities that have been flagged by the intrusion detection system. The analyst notices a pattern of packets that have unusually large sizes, which could indicate an attempt to exploit vulnerabilities through fragmentation attacks.

To further analyze these packets and identify potential threats, the analyst decides to examine the IPv4 datagram headers of the captured packets.

Which field in the IPv4 datagram header should the analyst focus on to determine the size of these packets and assess the risk of fragmentation attacks?

A. Total Length field

B. Fragment Offset field

C. Time to Live (TTL) field

D. Identification field

A

You have just connected a new computer to your network. The network uses static IP addressing.

You find that the computer can communicate with hosts on the same subnet, but not with hosts on a different subnet. No other computers are having issues.

Which of the following configuration values would you MOST likely need to change?

A. Subnet mask

B. Default gateway

C. DNS server

D. IP address

B

Consider the following IPv6 address: FE80:0000:0000:0055:0000:0000:000A:AB00

Which of the following are valid shortened forms of this address? (Select two.)

A. FE80::55:0000:0000:A:AB00

B. FE80::55::A:AB

C. FE80::0055::000A:AB

D. FE80::55::A:AB00

E. FE80:0000:0000:0055::000A:AB00

A, E

You are configuring a network monitoring tool to filter and analyze traffic based on the type of data being transmitted over the network. You need to ensure that the tool captures all traffic related to web browsing activities.

Given that web browsing typically uses HTTP and HTTPS protocols, which operate over TCP, what value should you configure the tool to filter on in the IPv4 datagram header?

A. Protocol field value of 17

B. Protocol field value of 6

C. Protocol field value of 1

D. Protocol field value of 2

B

What issue arises when a host has an incorrect subnet mask that is longer than it should be?

A. The host's IP address is automatically changed.

B. The host misroutes its replies, thinking communicating hosts are on a different subnet.

C. The host correctly routes its replies without any issues.

D. The host cannot receive any communications.

B

What is the purpose of the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) as indicated by the protocol type value 1?

A. Tunneling packets across an intermediate network

B. Status messaging and connectivity testing

C. Encapsulating security payload

D. Exchanging information about paths to remote networks

B

You are monitoring network traffic and notice that ARP requests for a specific IP address are receiving responses from two different MAC addresses.

What is the MOST likely cause of this issue, and how should you proceed to troubleshoot it?

A. There may be a duplicate MAC address issue; use a protocol analyzer to examine ARP traffic more closely.

B. The IP address is configured on a virtual machine and its host; reassign the IP address to only one device.

C. This is a normal occurrence in networks with multiple access points; no action is needed.

D. The network switch is malfunctioning; replace the switch immediately.

B

How many 16-bit numbers does an IPv6 address contain?

A. 4

B. 32

C. 8

D. 16

C

C

What is the primary purpose of using Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM)?

A. To increase the IPv4 address space

B. To maximize address space usage within a private network

C. To simplify the information Internet routers need to locate IP networks

D. To decrease the complexity of network design

B

You have been called in to troubleshoot a connectivity problem on a newly installed Windows Server system. The system is operating satisfactorily and is able to communicate with other systems on the local network. However it is unable to access any systems on other segments of the corporate network.

You suspect that the default gateway parameter for the system has not been configured or may be configured incorrectly.

Which of the following utilities are you MOST likely to use to view the system's default gateway information?

A. ipconfig

B. netstat

C. ifconfig

D. ping

A

A network administrator is troubleshooting a network issue in a multi-interface device that operates both an Ethernet and a Wi-Fi connection.

The administrator discovers that despite both interfaces having a valid IPv6 link local address, there seems to be confusion about where packets should be routed for local network operations.

What should the administrator check to resolve this issue?

A. The zone indices appended to the link local addresses

B. The subnet masks of the interfaces

C. The encryption settings of the interfaces

D. The global unicast addresses of the interfaces

A

When performing subnet calculations, what should you remember? (Select two.)

A. Memorize the decimal values for the number of bits set to 1 in an octet within a mask.

B. Subnet calculations are unnecessary if you use DHCP.

C. Always use the same subnet mask for every subnet to simplify calculations.

D. The subnet mask can be any random set of numbers as long as it looks complex.

E. Think in terms of the number of mask bits.

A, E

You are troubleshooting a network issue where a remote server is not responding to your web application's requests. You decide to use the ping command to check the connectivity to the server.

After running the command ping 192.168.1.10, you receive a series of "Reply from 192.168.1.10" messages with varying RTT times.

What can you infer about the network condition based on this output?

A. The web application is incompatible with the remote server.

B. There is a high level of packet loss between her host and the remote server.

C. The remote server's firewall is blocking her requests.

D. The remote server is online, and there is a network path between her host and the server.

D

Which file was historically used for applying persistent IP configuration in Linux?

A. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0

B. /etc/NetworkManager/NetworkManager.conf

C. /etc/netplan/01-netcfg.yaml

D. /etc/network/interfaces

D

A university's IT department is tasked with creating a subnet for a new dormitory that will house 120 students. Each student will be provided with one IP address for their personal device.

To optimize the use of the university's allocated IP address space, which subnet mask should the IT department use for this subnet?

A. 255.255.255.128

B. 255.255.255.240

C. 255.255.254.0

D. 255.255.255.0

D

What should you check if a remote IP address cannot be contacted?

A. The default gateway parameter on the local host

B. The IP address of the local host

C. The network protocol stack installation

D. The IP configuration of other hosts on the same subnet

A

Which protocol does an IP host use to inform a router that it wants to receive specific multicast frames?

A. ICMP

B. SNMP

C. SMTP

D. IGMP

D

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a new network segment for the marketing department. The department requires its own VLAN (VLAN50) to segregate its traffic from the rest of the company. The network consists of a Layer 3 switch and multiple Layer 2 switches. The engineer decides to use an SVI for VLAN routing.

Which of the following commands should the engineer use to configure the SVI for VLAN50 on the Layer 3 switch?

A. switchport mode access vlan 50

B. interface VLAN50 ip address 192.168.50.1 255.255.255.0

C. vlan 50

D. interface G0/1.50 encapsulation dot1Q 50

B