Ovine and Caprine Husbandry and Care

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Flashcards covering clinical procedures, surgical techniques, and common diseases of sheep and goats.

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109 Terms

1
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What are the two most common small ruminants encountered in veterinary practice?

Sheep (ovine) and goats (caprine)

2
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What is the key focus of Module 5 in veterinary technology?

Ovine and caprine clinical procedures and diseases.

3
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What fundamental skill areas are emphasized in this module?

Diagnostic sampling, medication administration, anesthesia protocols, and surgical preparation.

4
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What is the importance of preventive strategies in flock health?

To mitigate major infectious, parasitic, and non-infectious conditions affecting sheep and goats.

5
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What do sheep and goats require for appropriate housing?

Well-ventilated, draft-free housing.

6
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What is a common behavioral trait of sheep?

They tend to flock together and follow one another closely.

7
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What is a key distinction between the behavior of sheep and goats?

Sheep rely on herd instinct for safety, while goats are more independent and curious.

8
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What fencing requirement is specific to goats?

Secure, tall, and often electrified fencing.

9
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What is one nutritional consideration for sheep?

Sheep are sensitive to excess dietary copper.

10
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What dietary preference do goats have?

Goats prefer brush, shrubs, and a varied diet.

11
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What disease are sheep particularly prone to regarding internal parasites?

Haemonchus contortus (barber pole worm).

12
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What preventive measure is commonly practiced in sheep to prevent fly strike?

Tail docking.

13
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Which parasites are goats more at risk for?

External parasites such as lice and mites.

14
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How should sheep be restrained during handling?

Best moved as a group using their flocking instinct.

15
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What is the 'set-up' position used for in sheep?

A restraint method useful for hoof trimming and certain procedures.

16
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What strategy is important for handling sheep and goats to reduce stress?

Calm, low-stress techniques.

17
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What system is used to assess anemia in sheep and goats?

FAMACHA scoring system.

18
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What is the normal heart rate range for sheep and goats?

70–90 beats per minute.

19
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What is a unique clinical sign of infection by Haemonchus contortus?

Pale mucous membranes (anemia).

20
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Which disease is associated with late-term abortions in ewes?

Chlamydophilosis (Enzootic Abortion of Ewes).

21
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What two main components are crucial for routine health monitoring of sheep and goats?

Assessing appetite and body condition.

22
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What is an essential part of hoof care in sheep and goats?

Regular hoof trimming.

23
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What is the appropriate average temperature range for sheep?

102.0 – 104.0°F.

24
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What is the appropriate average temperature range for goats?

101.5 – 104.0°F.

25
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How can you describe the impact of proper handling techniques on sheep and goats?

Reduces disease and improves production.

26
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What is a common method for collecting urine samples from goats?

Catching during natural voiding.

27
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What are the main symptoms of a sheep affected by Clostridium perfringens?

Sudden death and abnormal digestive signs.

28
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In what way do sheep react when isolated from their flock?

They panic more easily.

29
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What are the most common routes for vaccination in sheep?

SQ (subcutaneous) or IM (intramuscular).

30
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How is the FAMACHA system beneficial in flock management?

It helps guide selective deworming to improve herd health.

31
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What animal safety precautions should be taken when working with sheep and goats?

Wear gloves, use low-stress handling, and ensure appropriate restraint.

32
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Why is it critical to not exceed the maximum dosage of lidocaine in sheep?

Sheep are very sensitive to lidocaine, and overdose can cause seizures or death.

33
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What does a technician need to do before administering an IV to a sheep?

Clip the wool/hair over the jugular groove.

34
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What condition could arise in goats from excessive grain feeding?

Urinary calculi (urolithiasis).

35
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What should be in place to avoid infections when performing procedures on sheep?

Ensure appropriate hygiene measures are followed.

36
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When should hooves be trimmed to avoid issues like lameness?

Every 6-8 weeks.

37
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What is the treatment for lameness in sheep typically linked to foot rot?

Hoof trimming and foot baths.

38
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What common bacterial disease causes abscesses in the lymph nodes of sheep?

Caseous Lymphadenitis (CL).

39
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What vaccination protects against the enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringens?

CDT vaccine (Clostridium perfringens Types C & D + Tetanus).

40
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What are common symptoms of botulism in goats?

Progressive paralysis and respiratory failure.

41
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Which method is employed for doing mastitis testing in dairy goats?

California Mastitis Test (CMT).

42
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What key management practice helps control parasite loads in sheep?

Rotational grazing.

43
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What does 'bloat' refer to in sheep?

Gas buildup in the rumen due to slow motility or overeating.

44
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What is tailored to ensure animal safety during anesthesia procedures?

Using cuffed endotracheal tubes.

45
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What does a technician record during medication administration in sheep and goats?

The treatment provided, site, dosage, and time.

46
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What are the clinical signs of other diseases such as coccidiosis?

Diarrhea and poor growth in young animals.

47
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What behavioral characteristic differentiates goats from sheep?

Goats are more mischievous and like to explore.

48
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What injectable route is preferred for vaccines in sheep?

Subcutaneous (SQ) in the neck area.

49
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What focus should dairy goat producers have in feed management?

Avoiding excessive copper intake.

50
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What is a necessary step before conducting preventive care in goats?

Educate owners on proper herd management practices.

51
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When are sheep most commonly castrated?

At a young age, often within the first few weeks.

52
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When should 'set-up' restraint be avoided in sheep?

In situations where calmness and safety are compromised.

53
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Why is it important to minimize stress during handling procedures for sheep?

Stress can affect vital signs and complicate medical evaluations.

54
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What is a primary concern with high copper levels in sheep's diet?

It can lead to fatal toxicity.

55
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What is the purpose of tail docking in sheep?

To prevent fly strike.

56
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What condition manifests as frequent difficulty in breathing due to rumen issues?

Bloat (Rumen Tympany).

57
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What are the primary symptoms of listeriosis in sheep?

Neurological signs, including circling and facial paralysis.

58
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What is an important component in prevention of urinary issues in male goats?

Managing calcium to phosphorus ratios in diets.

59
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What method must be followed to evaluate the rumen's function?

Regular assessment of rumen contractions.

60
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What is an indication of poor body condition in sheep?

Weight loss or lack of appetite.

61
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What disease should a veterinary technician look for when performing a necropsy?

Identify infectious agents and chronic conditions.

62
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What food safety consideration must be made after administering injections?

Observing withdrawal times for meat and milk.

63
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What behavioral response is often seen in sheep during handling?

Increased stress and isolation panic.

64
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What is one commonly recognized outcome of improper hoof care?

Foot rot leading to severe lameness.

65
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What is the feature of the pathology of anthrax in sheep?

Sudden death and bleeding from body orifices.

66
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What treatment method is used to address clostridial diseases such as tetanus?

Antitoxin administration and wound care.

67
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What clinical presentation defines scrapie in infected sheep?

Intense pruritus and neurological signs.

68
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How often should vaccinations be given to maintain herd immunity?

Annually or as specified in vaccination protocols.

69
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What should always be performed before any surgical procedure on a small ruminant?

Pre-surgical fasting to reduce regurgitation risk.

70
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In what circumstance would a technician need to assess the mucous membranes in sheep?

To evaluate for anemia and dehydration.

71
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What is the purpose of biosecurity measures in sheep care?

To prevent the introduction of infectious diseases.

72
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What type of diet are sheep designed to primarily consume?

Grasses and forages as grazers.

73
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How can signs of parasite infection in sheep be differentiated?

By monitoring FAMACHA scores and regular fecal checks.

74
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What is the management strategy for herd health that involves regularly rotating livestock?

Pasture management.

75
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What clinical sign suggests a high parasite load in sheep?

Pale mucous membranes indicating anemia.

76
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What common mistake occurs with drenching sheep?

Aspiration due to improper restraint.

77
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What is one sign of needing to deworm sheep?

Anemia visible through FAMACHA evaluation.

78
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What condition is recommended to monitor for in dairy goats?

Mastitis and its clinical signs.

79
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What is the significance of understanding behavior and temperament differences between sheep and goats?

It aids in proper handling and care specific to each species.

80
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Which vaccination strategy is essential during lambing for ewes?

Booster vaccinations to ensure colostral immunity for lambs.

81
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What is crucial to remember when assessing the heart rate in sheep and goats?

Values may change with stress and handling.

82
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What routine should be established for parasite management in sheep?

Implementing FAMACHA scoring and targeted deworming.

83
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What common condition is called while discussing cattle-like diseases in sheep?

Bloat.

84
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In terms of anatomy, what differentiates the approach to placing IVs in sheep and goats?

Soft tissue and neck anatomy require advanced restraint techniques.

85
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What disease is particularly noted for risk in pregnant women in the context of small ruminants?

Chlamydophilosis.

86
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What otic issues are prevalent in sheep and goats?

Ear mite infestations.

87
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What role does fiber play in the goats’ diet?

It helps maintain gut health and motility.

88
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What are the signs of urinary tract obstructions in male goats?

Straining to urinate and visible abdominal pain.

89
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What strategies should be in place to prevent diseases linked to periparturient complications?

Proper nutrition and monitoring during late gestation.

90
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What should be assessed during every veterinary visit for sheep?

Weight, body condition, and signs of illness.

91
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What critical assessment must a technician conduct pre-anesthesia?

Check the animal's vital signs for stability.

92
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What should technicians monitor closely for during recovery from anesthesia in small ruminants?

Signs of hypoventilation and regurgitation risk.

93
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What type of injuries can occur in sheep during handling if not careful?

Contusions from improper restraint methods.

94
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What is one major reason for implementing regular hoof trimming in small ruminants?

To prevent foot rot and improve mobility.

95
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What type of veterinary assistance can limit disease spread in flocks?

Consistency in health checks and vaccination schedules.

96
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What to do if managing cattle and sheep in a shared grazing environment?

Ensure proper health management plans for both species.

97
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What is the most commonly seen external parasite affecting small ruminants?

Lice and keds.

98
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What are the indicators for respiratory distress after inhaling anesthetics?

High respiratory rates and abnormal lung sounds.

99
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Why is it necessary to educate owners about the importance of nutrition?

To maintain optimal health and prevent common diseases.

100
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What are the advantages of using local anesthesia blocks in surgical procedures?

Reduced systemic drug use and lower anesthesia risks.