Pediatrics - Exam 5

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132 Terms

1
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What is a sudden, transient disturbance of brain function, manifested by involuntary motor, sensory, autonomic or psychic phenomena alone or in combination? It is often accompanies by alterations or loss of consciousness.

Seizure

2
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What is characterized by recurrent, unprovoked seizures (2 seizures that are separated by at least 24 hours) that often have interictal electroencephalographic changes?

Epilepsy

3
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If deja vu is present, a seizure is suggested to be in the...

Temporal lobe

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T/F: Every child with new onset unprovoked seizures needs an EEG.

True

1 multiple choice option

5
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T/F: Emergent imaging is necessary following a seizure even in the absence of trauma or acute abnormality on exam.

False

1 multiple choice option

6
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Children with epileptic syndromes (infantile spasms, Lennox-Gastaut) need an ____________ because 60-80% will have an abnormality.

MRI

7
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What is a hypsarrhythmia and when is it seen?

High amplitude spikes with slow waves and chaotic background (Infantile spasms)

8
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T/F: A normal EEG rules our epilepsy.

False

1 multiple choice option

9
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What is an absence seizure?

Lapse of consciousness or vacant stares lasting 5-10 seconds

10
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What is the first line treatment for absence seizures?

Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

11
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What type of seizure is characterized by an abrupt, symmetrical adduction or flexion of limbs with flexion of head and trunk OR abduction and extensor movements like a moro reflex, currently seen in ages 3-18 months?

Epileptic spasm/infantile spasms

12
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What is the mainstay of treatment for infantile spasms and when should it be started?

hormonal therapy with corticotropin (ACTH) or oral glucocorticoids; should be started within 3 days

13
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What is the treatment of choice for infantile spasms in patients with tuberous sclerosis?

Vigabatrin

14
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What is characterized by multiple seizure types, severe seizures of childhood, treatment resistant epilepsy, and intellectual disability?

Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

15
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What type of seizures are required for a diagnosis of Lennox-Gastaut?

Tonic seizures plus at least one additional type (usually atypical absence)

16
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What is the first-line treatment for patients with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

Valproate

17
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What is the most common childhood seizure?

Febrile seizure

18
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Why should physical activity be encouraged in patients with epilepsy?

may reduce the overall seizure burden/ lowers seizure threshold

19
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What gene mutation is responsible for neurofibromatosis in 50%?

NF1 gene

20
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Children with 6 or more cafe-au-late spots and no other findings should be followed as 95% will develop ________________ by 8 years of age.

Neurofibromatosis type 1

21
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What is seen in 15% of patients with neurofibromatosis?

optic gliomas

22
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What are the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis? Two or more must be present for diagnosis.

1) >6 cafe-au-lait spots 5mm in diameter

2) nerve sheath tumors

3) axillary or inguinal freckling

4) optic pathway glioma

5) 2 or more Lisch nodules (iris hamartomas)

6) bony lesions

7) first degree relative with NF type 1

23
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What presents with fever, malaise, and impaired heart, lung, liver, or renal function? They may have headache, stiff neck, hypothermia, or changes in mental status?

Meningitis

24
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What two signs are positive if there is meningeal irritation?

Kernig and Brudzinski

25
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CSF shows WBC with predominant PMNs, high protein, and low glucose. What type of meningitis does this patient have?

Bacterial

26
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CSF shows WBC with predominant lymphs, high protein, and low glucose. What type of meningitis is this?

Fungal

27
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CSF shows EBC with predominant lymphs, high protein, and normal glucose. What type of meningitis is this?

Viral or partially treated bacterial

28
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What are the cause of viral meningitis in 85% of cases?

Non-polio enteroviruses

29
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What are the most common causes of bacterial meningitis in the neonatal period?

Group B strep and E. Coli

30
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What are the most common causes beyond the neonatal period?

Strep pneumo, Neisseria meningitidis, H. flu B

31
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What is the treatment for neonates with meningitis?

Ampicillin and gentamicin

32
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What is the treatment for kids <3 months with meningitis?

Ampicillin and cefotaxime

33
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What is the treatment for kids >3 months with meningitis?

Ceftriaxone and vancomycin

34
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What is the classic triad of symptoms seen with a brain tumor?

Morning headache, vomiting, and papilledema

35
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What is the most common solid tumor of childhood? They make up 25% of all childhood cancers

Brain tumor

36
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What is the most common brain tumor of childhood?

Astrocytoma

37
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What are the most common headaches in children?

Migraine and tension

38
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What is the most common craniosynostosis?

Sagittal Synostosis

39
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What is the least common craniosynostosis?

Metopic Synostosis - Trigonal

40
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When does the moro reflex disappear?

5-6 months

41
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When does the palmar grasp reflex disappear?

5-6 months

42
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When does the plantar grasp reflex disappear?

9-10 months

43
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When does the rooting reflex disappear?

2-3 months

44
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Why is it not appropriate to document PERRLA in young infants?

They do not accommodate until about 9 months.

45
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What is the Moro reflex?

Startle reflex

46
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What is normal IQ?

90-109

47
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What is the triad of symptoms seen with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

Impulsivity, inattention, and hyperactivity

48
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What are some signs a child may have hyper-impulsive ADHD?

Fidgety, difficulty remaining seated in class, excessive running or climbing, blurting out answers, difficulty with quiet activities, difficulty waiting turn, interrupting

49
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What are some signs a child may have inattentive ADHD?

Failure to give attention when spoken to directly, failure to follow instructions, difficulty organizing tasks, losing utensils, easily distracted, forgetfulness in daily activities

50
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What are some medication treatment options for kids with ADHD?

Stimulants, clonidine, guanfacine, atomoxetine (stattera)

51
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________ enhance both dopamine and norepinephrine neurotransmission which seems to increase impulse control. Negative side effects include decreased appetite, insomnia, and cardiac problems.

Stimulants

52
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What is the term for deficits in social communication/social interaction across multiple contexts?

Autism spectrum disorder

53
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What is a screening tool for autism spectrum disorder that is used at 18-24 months?

MCHAT-R

54
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What is the third most common chronic illness of adolescence in the US? Children involved in gymnastics, figure skating, and ballet are at increased risk.

Anorexia Nervosa

55
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What disorder has patterns of negative, hostile, and defiant behavior lasting at least 6 months? They may lose temper, argue with adults, and defy rules, blame others for their mistakes, or be easily annoyed.

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

56
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What behavior can NOT be present for a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder?

Harming animals or individuals, destruction of property, or theft

57
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What disorder might a kid have if they are defying authority, violating the rights of others or societal norms, and are aggressive toward persons, animals, or property?

Conduct disorder

58
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Describe the typical patient for conduct disorder.

A boy with a turbulent home life and academic difficulty

59
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What is the first symptom of bipolar disorder in 70% of patients?

Depression

60
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T/F: ADHD and depression are highly comorbid.

True

1 multiple choice option

61
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What disorder causes dysphoric mood, mood lability, irritability, depressed appearance, changes in sleep/appetite/concentration/activity, suicidal ideation, or feelings of hopelessness?

Depression

62
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What screening tool is used for assessment and monitoring patients with depression?

PHQ-9

63
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T/F: In adolescence, females are 5 times as likely as males to have depression.

True

1 multiple choice option

64
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What is the most significant risk of depression?

Suicide

65
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In 2007, what was the third leading cause of death among children and adolescents in the US?

Suicide

66
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Adolescent _______ attempt suicide 3 times more often but the number of completed suicides are 3 times higher in _________.

Girls, Boys

67
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What is usually the first growth plate to close?

Elbow

68
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In pediatrics, which is stronger- ligaments or bones?

Ligaments

69
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What kind of fracture is from a unicortical force and is a stable fracture?

Buckle/Torus fracture

70
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What type of fracture is a unicortical fracture that results from a bending force?

Greenstick fracture

71
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What type of fracture is an extension fracture of the distal radius that has dorsal angulation?

Colles fracture

72
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What type of fracture is through the epiphyseal plate with no non-displaced fracture is evident on x-ray?

Salter Harris I

73
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What type of fracture is through the epiphyseal plate and extends into the metaphysis?

Salter Harris II

74
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What type of Salter Harris fracture is the most common?

Salter Harris II

75
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What type of fracture is through the epiphyseal plate and extends into the epiphysis and into the joint?

Salter Harris III

76
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What type of fracture is through the epiphyseal plate and extends though the metaphysis and epiphysis?

Salter Harris IV

77
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What type of fracture is a compression/crush injury to the epiphyseal plate?

Salter Harris V

78
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What is one of the most common fractures of childhood and is the most commonly fractured bone during delivery?

Clavicle fracture

79
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What is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta?

Brittle bone disease

80
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What is an autosomal dominant defect (COL1A1) that results in weak muscles, brittle bones/teeth, a curved spine, and hearing loss due to a defect in type 1 collagen?

Osteogenesis imperfecta

81
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What confirms the diagnosis of dominant osteogenesis imperfecta?

Type 1 collagen study (but a negative study foes not rule out OI)

82
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What is manifested by short stature, bone deformities, recurrent fractures, blue scleral hue, hearing loss, and skin laxity?

Osteogenesis imperfecta

83
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What is the most common form of osteogenesis imperfecta?

Type I (mild)

84
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What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is severe and usually leads to death in the first year of life?

Type II

85
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What type of osteogenesis imperfecta has fractures starting very early in life and can have severe bone deformities? Many become wheelchair bound and have a shortened life expectancy.

Type III

86
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What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is similar to type I but often requires braces and crutched to walk? Life expectancy is near normal.

Type IV

87
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What should always be ruled out in a kid you suspect may have osteogenesis imperfecta?

Child abuse

88
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When diagnosing OI, a sequence analysis of cDNA is done to look for mutations in COL1A1/COL1A2 which requires a ______________.

Skin biopsy for fibroblast cultures

89
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What are some red flags for child abuse?

- long bone fx in non-ambulatory kids

- buckle handle fx

- fx of sternum, scapula, or spinous process

- multiple fx in various stages of healing

- inconsistent history

90
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What is abnormal lateral curvature of the spine (in the coronal plane)?

Scoliosis

91
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What is the most common type of scoliosis?

Idiopathic (adolescent - >10)

92
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What is dextroscoliosis?

Convexity to the right

93
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What is levoscoliosis and what is it often associated with?

Convexity to the left - spinal tumors or fistulas

94
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If you have a patient with left thoracic scoliosis, what should you order to rule out neuromuscular etiology?

MRI

95
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What are some risk factors for scoliosis progression?

-Skeletal immaturity

- curve location (lumbar curves progress faster)

- curve magnitude (large curves progress more)

96
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What measurement is used for diagnosing scoliosis?

COBB angle

97
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When is surgical intervention needed for scoliosis?

Curves >40 degrees

98
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What is Scheuermann's disease?

Structural kyphosis and adolescent back pain generally seen in males 14-17 due to anterior wedging at three consecutive vertebral bodies

99
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Shmorl's nodes on x-ray are a sign of....

Scheuermann's disease

100
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What is equinus?

plantar flexion of the forefoot, hindfoot, or entire foot