Pharmacology Review: Asthma, Respiratory & Cardiovascular Drugs

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A 40-card flashcard set covering key points from the lecture on asthma pharmacology, respiratory adjuncts, and related cardiovascular and lipid-lowering drugs. Each card follows a question-and-answer format to aid exam preparation.

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40 Terms

1
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What three airway changes characteristically occur during an asthma attack?

Bronchoconstriction (smooth-muscle tightening/narrowing), excess mucus production, and inflammation mediated by histamine & leukotrienes.

2
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Which drug class is considered the first-line "rescue inhaler" for acute asthma symptoms?

Short-acting β2-agonist bronchodilators (SABAs) such as albuterol.

3
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List four common brand names for albuterol.

ProAir, Proventil, Ventolin, and Maxair.

4
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How frequently should a well-controlled patient need a SABA like albuterol?

Ideally no more than twice per week; more frequent use signals poor control.

5
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Which bronchodilator class must NEVER be used to treat sudden asthma symptoms?

Long-acting β2-agonists (LABAs).

6
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Give two examples of long-acting β2-agonists.

Formoterol and Salmeterol (others include Arformoterol, Indacaterol).

7
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What is ipratropium bromide better known as, and what class is it?

Atrovent; an anticholinergic bronchodilator.

8
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Name two systemic side effects to monitor with inhaled anticholinergics.

Increased blood pressure and urinary retention (also dry mouth/eyes).

9
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Why should patients avoid spraying Atrovent into their eyes?

It can precipitate ocular problems such as blurred vision or glaucoma.

10
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Which medication group treats the inflammatory component of asthma directly?

Corticosteroids (inhaled, oral, or IV).

11
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Give three examples of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS).

Beclomethasone, Budesonide (Pulmicort), and Fluticasone (Flovent) (also Mometasone).

12
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What oral complication necessitates rinsing the mouth after ICS use?

Oral candidiasis (thrush).

13
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Why must systemic corticosteroids be tapered rather than stopped abruptly?

To prevent adrenal suppression and withdrawal reactions.

14
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What are leukotriene modifiers and provide one example.

Drugs that block leukotriene receptors to reduce inflammation; e.g., Montelukast (Singulair).

15
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Which laboratory study should be checked periodically with leukotriene modifiers?

Liver function tests (LFTs).

16
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Theophylline belongs to which drug class and when is it typically used?

Methylxanthine bronchodilators; reserved for refractory cases or severe exacerbations.

17
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List three prominent signs of theophylline toxicity.

Headache, tremors/ restlessness, and palpitations (also insomnia, seizures at high levels).

18
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In respiratory pharmacology, what does the acronym LABA stand for?

Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonist.

19
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Name a common combination inhaler that contains both an ICS and a LABA.

Advair Diskus (Fluticasone + Salmeterol) (others: Symbicort, Dulera).

20
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For which asthma patients are anti-IgE biologics like omalizumab (Xolair) indicated?

Patients with severe allergic (IgE-mediated) asthma not controlled by standard therapy.

21
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What is the mechanism of mast-cell stabilizers such as cromolyn sodium?

They inhibit histamine release from mast cells, preventing airway inflammation.

22
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What is the most commonly used expectorant for productive cough?

Guaifenesin (Mucinex or Robitussin).

23
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What key instruction must accompany benzonatate (Tessalon Perles) administration?

Swallow capsules whole; chewing can numb the throat and risk aspiration.

24
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Why is pseudoephedrine kept behind the pharmacy counter?

It has abuse potential and sympathomimetic effects; can be used illicitly to make methamphetamine.

25
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List two cardiovascular side effects of systemic decongestants.

Tachycardia/palpitations and elevated blood pressure.

26
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What distinguishes cardio-selective from non-selective beta blockers?

Cardio-selective block only β1 receptors (heart), sparing β2 (lungs); non-selective block both.

27
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Give one example each of a cardio-selective and a non-selective beta blocker.

Metoprolol (cardio-selective); Propranolol (non-selective).

28
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What serious event can sudden discontinuation of beta blockers provoke?

Rebound hypertension, angina, or myocardial infarction.

29
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Why are ACE inhibitors contraindicated during pregnancy?

They reduce placental blood flow and can harm fetal development.

30
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Identify two hallmark adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.

Dry non-productive cough and angioedema (also hyperkalemia).

31
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Mechanistically, how do ARBs differ from ACE inhibitors?

ARBs block angiotensin II receptors, preventing aldosterone release, rather than inhibiting ACE itself.

32
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What dietary advice should be given to patients starting an ACE inhibitor?

Limit high-potassium foods to avoid hyperkalemia.

33
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Which antihypertensive class has a notable interaction with grapefruit juice?

Calcium channel blockers (e.g., Verapamil, Nifedipine).

34
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Which common diuretic is potassium-sparing rather than potassium-wasting?

Spironolactone (also Amiloride, Triamterene).

35
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What supplement or dietary change may be recommended with hydrochlorothiazide therapy?

Increase potassium intake (bananas, spinach) or take potassium supplements.

36
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Which lipid-lowering drug class ends in “-statin” and what enzyme does it inhibit?

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors; they block the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme to reduce cholesterol synthesis.

37
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What symptom suggests statin-induced rhabdomyolysis requiring immediate drug cessation?

Unexplained muscle pain, tenderness, or weakness.

38
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What classic side effect of niacin can be minimized by giving aspirin 30 minutes before?

Flushing/vasodilation of the face and chest.

39
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Which lipid-lowering agents can cause severe constipation and fat-soluble vitamin deficiency?

Bile acid sequestrants (e.g., Cholestyramine/Questran).

40
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Fibric acid derivatives such as gemfibrozil primarily lower which lipid parameter?

Triglyceride levels (and they modestly raise HDL).