Embryology final practice Q's

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73 Terms

1
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What is the process of formation and development of specialized generative cells called?

A. Salutogenesis

B. Pathogenesis

C. Gametogenesis

D. Blastulation

Gametogenesis

2
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In the process of Gametogenesis how many viable sex cells are formed in both males and females, respectively?

A. 2;1

B. 2;1

C. 4;1

D. 4;2

4;1

3
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What is the biggest contributor to the number of viable female gametes?

A. Genetic Material

B. Cytoplasm distribution

C. Nondisjunction

D. None of the above

Cytoplasm distribution

4
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The process of migration in the egg is?

A. Active

B. Passive

C. Osmotic

D. Meiotic

Passive

5
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What is the proper term given to the development of too many chromosomes?

A. Monosomy

B. Trisomy

C. Polysemy

D. None of the above

Trisomy

6
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Which of the following causes abnormal; gametogenesis?

A. Non disjunction

B. Disjunction

C. Replication

D. Nonreplication

Non disjunction

7
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What is the most common result of abnormal gametogenesis discussed in class?

A. Spina bifida

B. Apoptosis

C. Gametogenesis

D. Down's syndrome

Down's syndrome

8
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In normal pregnancy and implantation, the endometrium is the site of implantation. If implantation occurs in any other area than the endometrium, what is this pregnancy called?

A. Ectopic

B. Absent

C. Apoptotic

D. None of the above

Ectopic

9
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When is meiosis 2 complete in the female?

A. Preconception

B. Birth

C. Ovulation

D. Fertilization

Fertilization

10
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Based on function, FSH has an inverse relationship with which other hormone involved in the normal menstruated cycle?

A. Progesterone

B. Estrogen

C. GnRH

D. LH

Estrogen

11
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What structure is responsible for the secretion of progesterone?

A. Ovary

B. Hypothalamus

C. Anterior pituitary

D. Corpus luteum

Corpus luteum

12
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When is the best time to educate a couple who is planning or in the process of starting a family?

A. Pre conception

B. Week 1-4

C. Week 5-9

D. Following birth

Pre conception

13
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Which of the following cellular layers is responsible for the burrowing into the endometrium?

A. Cytotrophoblasts

B. Syncytiotrophoblasts

C. Hypoblasts

D. None of the above

Syncytiotrophoblasts

14
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Which of the following structures is believed to be a primary organizer and inducer of morphogenesis?

A. Somites

B. Metanephric Blastema

C. Notochord

D. None of the above

Notochord

15
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During week 3 a trilaminar disk develops. What is the name of this part of human development?

A. Fertilization

B. Blastulation

C. Gastrulation

D. Neurolation

Gastrulation

16
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The inferior mesenteric artery gives blood supple to which of the following?

A. Distal duodenum

B. Distal transverse colon

C. Pancreas

D. None of the above

Distal transverse colon

17
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The development of the midgut gives rise to which of the following?

A. Pancreas

B. Distal duodenum

C. Distal transverse colon

D. Stomach

Distal duodenum

18
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The dorsal mesentery becomes the?

A. Greater omentum

B. Lesser omentum

C. Faliciform ligament

D. Round ligament

Greater omentum

19
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The distal duodenum is supplied blood by the:

A. Celiac trunk

B. Superior mesenteric artery

C. Inferior mesenteric artery

D. None of the above

Superior mesenteric artery

20
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The left vagus nerve supplies which part of the developed stomach?

A. Right

B. Left

C. Front

D. Back

Front

21
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Which of the following is a radiological sign for tetralogy of fallot?

A. She sign

B. Foot sign

C. Boot sign

D. None of the above

Boot sign

22
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Blood from the inferior vena cava reaches the right atrium following the anastomoses with the umbilical vein via what fetal adaptation?

A. Ductus arteriosus

B. Ductus deferens

C. Ductus hepatis

D. Ductus venosus

Ductus venosus

23
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Blood is transferred from the aorta to the pulmonary trunk via which fetal adaption?

A. Ductus arteriosus

B. Ductus deferens

C. Ductus hepatis

D. Ductus venosus

Ductus arteriosus

24
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Insufficient elongation of the esophagus causes:

A. Pyloric sphincter rupture

B. SIDS

C. Congenital hiatal hernia

Tongue tie

Congenital hiatal hernia

25
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Which pharyngeal arch does not contribute to the fully developed fetus?

A. I

B. II

C. V

D. VI

V

26
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A patient walks into your office complaining of facial numbness and tingling. Upon examination you notice there is asymmetrical facial expression. What pharyngeal arch is the problem most likely associated with?

A. I

B. II

C. V

D. VI

II

27
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A patient presents with the inability to distinguish between sharp and dull sensations on the face and has noticed the reduction in the ability to comfortable bite down on their food. Which pharyngeal arch would you suspect is associated with this issue?

A. I

B. II

C. V

D. VI

I

28
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The heart does not have the ability to rhythmically beat prior to nervous system development and innervation.

True

False

False

29
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The laryngeal cartilages develop from mesenchyme that is derived from:

A. Endoderm

B. Mesoderm

C. Ectoderm

D. Neural crest

Neural crest

30
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The visceral pleura of the lung is derived from:

A. Endoderm

B. Splanchnic mesoderm

C. Somatic mesoderm

D. Ectoderm

Splanchnic mesoderm

31
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During which of the following stages is respiration not possible?

A. Psuedoglandular period

B. Canalicular period

C. Terminal sac stage

D. Alveolar period

Psuedoglandular period

32
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The distal part of the glans penis is derived from which of the following germ layers?

A. Endoderm

B. Mesoderm

C. Ectoderm

D. None of the above

Ectoderm

33
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Which of the following plays a role on the development of the male reproductive system?

A. Mesonephric ducts

B. Paramesonephric ducts

Mesonephric ducts

34
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Testosterone induces the masculinization of the external genitalia.

True

False

True

35
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Which of the following is contained in the inguinal canal of the female?

A. Broad ligament

B. Round ligament

C. Ovarian ligament

D. None of the above

Round ligament

36
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The part of the sperm containing proteolytic enzymes to digest the Zona pellucida is the:

A. Capacitor

B. Head

C. Corona

D. Acrosome

Acrosome

37
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Haploid nuclei that fuse at fertilization are called:

A. Homunculi

B. Centrioles

C. Pronuclei

D. Nucleoli

Pronuclei

38
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The most common site of implantation outside of the uterus is called:

A. Ovary

B. Uterine tube

C. Mesentery

D. Internal os

Uterine tube

39
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The first two intraembryonic germ layers to differentiate are the:

A. ectoderm and hypoblast

B. epiblast and hypoblast

C. ectoderm and endoderm

D. ectoderm and mesoderm

Ectoderm and mesoderm

40
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The primitive streak first appears at the beginning of week:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

3

41
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Almost all of the internal organs are well laid down by:

A. Month 1

B. Month 2

C. Month 3

D. Month 4

Month 2

42
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When chronic villi become vascularized they are called?

A. Branch villi

B. Stem villi

C. Tertiary villi

D. Anchoring villi

Tertiary villi

43
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The most important region of the decidua for the nourishment of the concepts is the decidua ____.

A. Basalis

B. Parietals

C. Capsularis

D. Leave

Basalis

44
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The notochord is replaced by the:

A. Spinal canal

B. Dorsal roots

C. Nucleus pulposus

D. Spinal cord

Nucleus pulposus

45
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The fact that general and special sensory information from the posterior part of the tongue is carried by the Glossopharyngeal nerve indicates that this part of the tongue is from brachial arch ___:

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. IV

III

46
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The heart is derived from:

A. Splanchnic mesoderm

B. Somatic mesoderm

C. Septum transversum

D. Paraxial mesoderm

Splanchnic mesoderm

47
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Which of the following is most closely associated with the ligamentum teres hepatis?

A. Umbilical vein

B. Umbilical artery

C. Vitelline vein

D. Third aortic arch

Umbilical vein

48
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Mickel's diverticula is an adult remnant of the:

A. Urachus

B. Hindgut

C. Pars cystica

D. Vitelline duct

Vitelline duct

49
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The embryonic origin(s) of the labia minora is:

A. Urethral folds

B. Genital tubercle

C. Genital swelling

D. Cloacal membrane

Urethral folds

50
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The optic nerve is derived from what embryonic tissue?

A. Neural crest

B. Ectoderm

C. Endoderm

D. Mesoderm

Ectoderm

51
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The cardiovascular system is derived from what?

Lateral plate

52
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The urogenital system is derived from what?

Intermediate mesoderm

53
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The somite is derived from what?

Paraxial mesoderm

54
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The pronephros nerve innervates what?

Kidney

55
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What is the first functional kidney?

Mesonephros

56
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The metanephros gives rise to what?

Adult kidney

57
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The mesonephric duct gives rise to what?

Parts of the male reproductive system

58
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What does the paramesonephric give rise to?

Parts of the female reproductive system

59
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Sclerotome gives rise to what?

Vertebrae and ribs

60
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Myotomes give side to what?

Muscle

61
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Dermatomes develop into?

Dermal connective tissue

62
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The epaxial gives rise to what?

Back muscles

63
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Hypaxial gives rise to what?

Ventral and lateral muscles

64
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Epaxial is innervated by what?

Dorsal rami

65
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Hypaxial is innervated by what?

Ventral rami

66
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Flat bones and clavicle are formed via?

Intramembranous ossification

67
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Long bones are developed via?

Endochondral ossification

68
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Interstitial cells of leydig secrete?

Androgenic hormones

69
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Testosterone stimulates mesonephric ducts which give rise to?

Ductus deferens, seminal gland, and ejaculatory duct.

70
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Epidermis is derived from?

Ectoderm

71
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Dermis is derived from?

Mesoderm

72
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Hair, nail, sweat gland, sebaceous gland, and mammary glands are all derived from?

Ectoderm

73
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Growth and maturation of the limbs occurs along?

Proximal-distal, anterior - posterior, dorsal - ventral pattern.