Immune Pathophysiology Unit Quiz

Introductory Pathophysiology

Which of the following lists of extracellular immune signals acts as a strong activator of mast cells?

IgE, C3a, C5a

Which of the following lists are anti-apoptosis (cell survival) genes activated by NF-κB?

BCL-2, caspase, fas

Which of the following lists contain proteins that form a membrane attack complex (MAC)?

C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

Which of the following cells is most likely to carry a pattern recognition receptor?

Macrophage

Which of the following cells is responsible for binding to, surrounding, and digesting pathogens?

Macrophage

NF-κB is an important element of the immune response. What is its role?

Transcription factor

What is the term used for the genetic recombination that results in 3 billion different antigen specificities?

V(D)J rearrangement

An activated B cell presents an antigen specific to a T helper cell. Which proteins are involved?

CD3, CD4, MHC class II molecule

Which antibody class is first to appear in the blood after pathogen exposure?

IgM

Antigen-presenting cells use __________ to display antigen on their surface.

MHC class II molecules

Displaying a strange antigen on your surface via MHC Class I will likely get you a visit from:

T cytotoxic cell

Which antibody class remains in the blood for weeks, months, or years after pathogen exposure?

IgG

Which diseases are thought to be triggered in part by a type 2 (ILC2) "bridge"?

Allergies, asthma-induced obesity, inflammatory bowel disease, liver damage from carbon tetrachloride, schistosomiasis

Which disease is thought to be triggered by a combination of type 2 (ILC2) and type 3 (ILC3) bridges?

Asthma-induced obesity

Which disease is thought to be triggered by a combination of type 1 (NK, ILC1) and type 3 (ILC3) bridges?

Inflammatory bowel disease

The response to worms, allergies, or asthma involves which IgE-responsive cell?

Mast cell

The immune response to Ascaris roundworms involves which key cell type?

Mast cell

ILC3, Th17, and Tc17 cells responding to MRSA release which cytokine?

Interleukin 17 (IL-17)

Which innate immune cell engulfs and drops chemical “bombs” on MRSA?

Neutrophil

Which chemical factors released from macrophages and neutrophils are responsible for antimicrobial action and wound debridement?

Collagenase, elastase, hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), hydroxide free radical (OH•), nitric oxide (NO), superoxide free radical (O2•)

Which chemical signals sent by platelets and macrophages promote wound healing?

FGF, PDGF, TGF-α, TGF-β1, VEGF

Blood vessel leakiness delivers WBCs to damaged tissue, producing which sign of inflammation?

Swelling

The enzyme that breaks down collagen in wound debridement is:

Collagenase

The regrowth of tissue blood supply in wound healing is called:

Angiogenesis

Which part of the immune system is responsible for the characteristic signs of inflammation?

Innate

Mast cell mediators acting on nerve receptors cause which sign of inflammation?

Pain

The enzyme that breaks down elastin in wound debridement is:

Elastase

Symptoms of allergy and anaphylaxis include:

Capillary dilation, itching, mucus secretion

A substance that cannot cause an immune reaction by itself but can when combined with body chemicals is called:

Hapten

Which drug can block hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies?

IgG against Rh factor

Typical time course of a T cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction?

48 hours or more

Activated __________ (plasma cells) release IgE, leading to allergy or anaphylaxis.

B cells

Which immunoglobulin class is involved in anaphylaxis and allergy?

IgE

In hemolytic disease of the newborn, which pregnancy is at risk?

Second and all subsequent pregnancies

A mismatched blood transfusion puts the patient at risk for:

Hemolytic anemia

In type I diabetes, pancreatic islet cells are attacked after displaying fragments of:

Glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD), insulin, islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP)

Molecules made by a nucleated cell are presented on the surface by:

MHC class I molecules

Examples of diseases caused by enteroviruses include:

Aseptic meningitis, hand, foot, and mouth disease, myocarditis, polio

True statement about SLE:

About 9 times as many women as men suffer from the disease

DQ2 and DQ8 MHC markers are found:

On the surface of antigen-presenting cells

Immune tolerance (removal of self-reactive T cells) occurs in the:

Thymus

Gluten consists of:

Gliadin and glutenin proteins found in wheat-based products

Plaque psoriasis abnormally crosses which immune bridge?

Type 3 (ILC3, Tc17, Th17)

Main diagnostic feature of SLE:

Anti-nuclear antibodies

Another name for HLA proteins:

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) markers

Retroviral gene functions:

env – envelope proteins; gag – matrix, capsid, nucleocapsid proteins; pol – reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease

Key cell cycle and regulatory genes which can cause cancer when abnormally activated are:

Proto-oncogenes

Marker for HIV-1 progression:

T helper (CD4⁺) cells

Environmental factors that predispose to chronic inflammation and cancer include:

Diet, ethanol, pollution, tobacco products

As tumoricidal effector response decreases in inflammation-induced cancer, what increases?

Immune tolerance