Final Exam-IUPUI Biology K101

1. In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by

a. polar covalent bonds.

2. Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments demonstrated conclusively that

d. organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth.

3. What do the four 'elements of life' -carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen-have in common?

e. They all have unpaired electrons in their valence shells.

4. Using the functional group diagram at right answer

A - E which of the following is incorrectly matched?:

a. A = amino group

b. B = thiol group

c. C = carbonyl (aldehyde)

d. D= organic phosphate

e. E= carboxyl group

e. E= carboxyl group

5. Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because

a. the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge.

e. the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds

6. Which functional group shown at right is:

i) is an acidic functional group that can release H+ into a solution?

ii) a basic functional group that can accept H+?

iii) can exist as a ketone or aldehyde configuration?

iv) a characteristic of alcohols?

v) helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules?

i) C

ii) D

iii) B

iv) A

v) E

7. Which modifications of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures?

a. adding hydrogens and trans double bonds to the fatty acids

8. A comparison of saturated and naturally occurring unsaturated fats reveals that the unsaturated fats are __________ at room temperature and have _______:

d. Liquids; cis double bonds

9. A molecule with four joined rings that is the precursor of vertebrate sex hormones and is also found in the vertebrate phospholipid bilayer is:

d. cholesterol

10. A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a ____ where one with the formula C6H12O6 is probably a ___

b. fatty acid and monosaccharide, respectively

11. Match the molecules shown below and to the right

a. cholesterol.

b. dipeptide.

c. saturated fatty acid.

d. polyunsaturated fatty acid.

e. glucose.

A) 4

B) 5

C) 3

D) 2

E) 1

12. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding chemical reaction (5) illustrated above?

b. It results in a peptide bond.

13. A bond that forms after joining monomers (such as nucleotides or amino acids) into polymers (such as DNA or insulin) is a(n):

e. Covalent bond

14. Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that they

d. are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions.

15. Match the following parts of the cell to its function

a. Sorting of proteins targeted for extracellular secretion

b. Site of cell-cell adhesion and cell recognition

c. Site of transcription of mRNA and tRNA for protein synthesis

d. Synthesis of the steroid hormone testosterone

e. Synthesis of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation

f. Site of rRNA for protein synthesis

g. Synthesis of the insulin receptor, a transmembrane glycoprotein

i) Nucleus

ii) Mitochondria

iii) Nucleolis

iv) Rough ER

v) Golgi apparatus

vi) Smooth ER

vii) Extracellular Matrix

i) C

ii) E

iii) F

iv) G

v) A

vi) D

vii) B

16. Proteins that are manufactured for secretion (export from the cell):

e. are made in the rough ER and packaged in transport vesicles

17. Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?

c. Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse.

18. All of the following are functions of integral membrane proteins except

a. Synthesis of hormones.

19. Match the components of the plasma membrane with the letters in the figure at right.

a. Cholesterol -

b. Glycolipid -

c. Integral Membrane Protein -

d. Peripheral Membrane Protein -

e. Glycoprotein -

a. e

b. a

c. b

d. f

e. c

20. Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell?

a. anabolic reactions

21. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?

b. It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.

22. Increasing the substrate concentration in a reaction could overcome which of the following?

c. competitive inhibition

23. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: The primary way that cells do work is called energy coupling, using ATP. Which statements below statements accurately defines energy coupling?

b. Exergonic reactions drive endergonic reactions.

d. ATP hydrolysis releases free energy that can be coupled to an endergonic reaction via the formation of a phosphorylated intermediate.

24. The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is

c. protein kinase

25. In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the area of the outer mitochondrial membranes. What purpose must this serve?

c. It increases the surface for oxidative phosphorylation.

26. Why is the Calvin cycle said to be dependent on the light reactions?

c. The light reactions produce the ATP energy and NADPH for sugar production in the Calvin cycle.

27. One function of alcohol and lactic acid fermentation is to

c. oxidize NADH to NAD+

28. When skeletal muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be caused by

b. buildup of lactate.

29. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the 4 kinase enzymes in glycolysis might be the enzyme shown below?

b. Pyruvate Kinase (PK)

d. Phosphoglycerokinase (PGK)

30. Photosynthesis and respiration: Match with the correct location in the cell

a. Krebs cycle i) Thylakoid membrane

b. Calvin cycle ii) Thylakoid lumen

c. Light reactions iii) Mitochondrial inner membrane space

d. Proton Gradient in cellular respiration iv) Chloroplast stroma

e. Proton Gradient in Light reactions v) Mitochondrial matrix

a. v

b. iv

c. i

d. iii

e. ii

31. Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis?

e. 100%

32. A C4 plant initially fixes CO2 into ____ where a C3 plant fixes CO2 into _______

a. Oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco.

33. Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction?

6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy → C6H12O6 + 6 O2

d. CO2 is reduced and H2O is oxidized.

34. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?

b. accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.

35. Which of the following is NOT true about Rubisco?

c. It is a kinase

36. Up to 60% of all medicines used today influence what structures in the cell membrane?

a. Receptor tyrosine-kinases

b. Epinephrine receptors

c. Growth factors

d. G-protein linked receptors

e. Steroid hormone receptors

d. G-protein linked receptors

37. How does adenylyl cyclase help transmit signals within a cell?

d. Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP to cAMP, which then amplifies the signal throughout the cell.

38. MATCHING: Match the following components related to cell signaling

a. Epinephrine

b. Intergral membrane protein receptor

c. Integral membrane protein enzyme

d. Peripheral membrane protein that binds GTP

e. Second messenger generated from ATP

(1) Adenylyl cyclase

(2) G-Protein

(3) GPCR

(4) cAMP

(5) Ligand

a. 5

b. 3

c. 1

d. 2

e. 4

39. Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) are found at high levels on various cancer cells. A protein, Herceptin, has been found to bind to an RTK known as HER2 if which of the following is true?

c. If the patient's breast cancer cells have detectable HER2.

40. MATCHING: Enzyme Roundup: Cell Signaling

a. Converts ATP to cAMP after G-protein signaling

b. Converts cAMP to AMP; inhibited by caffeine

c. Converts membrane lipids to IP3 and DAG

d. Phosphorylates relay molecules after activation and dimerization

(1) Phosphodiesterase

(2) Phosphodiesterase C

(3) Receptor Tyrosine Kinase

(4) Adenylyl Cyclase

a. 4

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

41. The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases (R-TKs) is always characterized by

a. Dimerization and auto-phosphorylation.

42. If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be

d. 2x.

43. If the cell whose nuclear material is shown at right continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next?

d. formation of telophase nuclei

44. Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells _____

a. have altered plasma membranes and cytoskeletal proteins

b. have mutations or deletions in tumor suppressors like p53

c. have the ability to stimulate new blood vessel formation

d. do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition of growth

e. all of the above

e. all of the above (44)

45. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following occurs in meiosis, but not mitosis?

b. Homologous chromosomes separate.

46. In an plant with a diploid chromosome number of 2n = 46, how many pairs of homologous chromosomes are present in a cell that has just entered Meiosis II? (we want everyone correct!)

a. 0

47. Using a microscope to examine the skin cells from a female, it is apparent that each nucleus has two Barr bodies. From this karyotype, it can be concluded that the woman's chromosomal condition is

a. 47, XXX

48. At what stage of meiosis do cells become haploid?

c. Telophase I

49. After Telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is?

d. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids

50. Homologous chromosomes synapse or pair during:

b. prophase I.

51. Mendel's law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis?

c. alignment of tetrads at the equator in metaphase

52. In a population with two alleles for cystic fibrosis, C and c, the frequency the recessive allele is 0.6. What percent of the population would be heterozygous carriers for cystic fibrosis if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

d. 48%

53. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?

d. 1/2

54. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Blood Type: What are the probabilities for blood types in the offspring of individuals who both have type AB blood?

A. Type A = 25%

b. Type B = 25%

c. Type AB = 25%

d. Type AB = 50%

e. Type O = 25%

a. Type A = 25%

b. Type B = 25%

d. Type AB = 50%

55. Epistasis: A black Lab (BbEe) is crossed with a chocolate Lab (bbEe). In a litter of 16 F1 puppies, what are likely going to be the proportions of black, chocolate, or yellow Labs?

d. 6 Black, 6 Chocolate, 4 Yellow

56. Sex linkage: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Hemophilia is an X-linked, recessive trait. If a male has hemophilia (XfY), and his spouse is heterozygous for blood clotting factors (XFXf),

a. There is a 50% chance that their sons will have hemophilia

b. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will have hemophilia

c. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will be carriers for hemophilia

d. All of their daughters will have hemophilia

e. All of their sons will have hemophilia

a. There is a 50% chance that their sons will have hemophilia

b. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will have hemophilia

c. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will be carriers for hemophilia

57. Match thje following human genetics disorders with their inheritance patterns? Answers may be used more than once

i) Marfan's condition

ii) Tay Sachs

iii) Cystic Fibrosis

iv) Hemophilia

v) Achondroplasia

vi) Schizophrenia

vii) Polydactyly

a) Autosomal recessive

b) Autosomal dominant condition

c) X-linked condition

d) Multifactorial condition

i) b

ii) a

iii) a

iv) c

v) b

vi) d

vii) b

58. Maize (corn) plants are tall if they have the genotype HH or Hh, and they are short if they have genotype hh. If a tall plant is mated with a short plant, which outcome would indicate that the tall parent corn plant was heterozygous?

a. The ratio of tall offspring to short offspring is 1:1.

59. The trait found in the individuals is represented by the shaded symbols. Which of the following patterns of transmission for this gene is/are consistent with this pedigree?

b. autosomal dominant (59)

60. Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in a range of symptoms. Which of the following terms best describes this?

c. pleiotropy

61. The pedigree at right shows a family with a disease pattern indicated by shaded symbols. Which of the following patterns of transmission for this gene are consistent with this pedigree?

b. autosomal dominant (61)

62. A scientist removed the AAC nucleotides at the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine. Which of the following describes the most likely result?

c. The amino acid methionine will not be able to bind to the tRNA

63. In the figure to the right, mRNA transcription process initiates at the area labeled _______, The messenger RNA transcript in the figure is labeled_____, and the template strand is labeled ______:

a. E; D; C

b. E G, D

c. A; D; C

d. A; C; D

e. A; E C

a. E; D; C

64. The component labeled B is:

e. RNA polymerase.

65. The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in

d. a polypeptide missing an amino acid

66. A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The dipeptide that will form will be

b. proline-threonine.

67. The anticodon loop of the tRNA that will complement this mRNA: 5' CCG 3' is

a. 3' GGC 5'

68. When translating secretory ormembrane proteins, ribosomes are brought to the ER membrane by

b. a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.

69. What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?

5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'

d. met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu

70. RNA molecules with enzymatic functions (such as peptidyltransferase) are called __________.

d. ribozymes

71. Using the codon chart, match the designation with the following 3 mutations

a. y

b. z

c. x

72. The 5ꞌ end of a DNA strand always has a free __________ group while the 3ꞌ end always has a free __________ group.

a. phosphate; hydroxyl

73. Match the following aspects of DNA replication (A-F) to their correct descriptions

i) Site of action of DNA Ligase

ii) Leading Strand

iii) Okasaki Fragments

iv) Lagging Strand

v) RNA primers

vi) DNA Template Strand

i)D

ii)A

iii)E

iv)B

v)F

vi)C

74. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: The human Crystalline gene is contained in the genome of every cell of a human, but is only expressed (made into protein) in the lens of the eye. This is because

b. Activator proteins (transcription factors) that bind to regulatory regions of the crystalline gene are only found in the lens cells

c. The crystalline gene has specific promoter and enhancer control elements that bind to only lens-specific activators

75. Which of the following is the attachment site for RNA polymerase?

b. the TATAAA box

76. Upstream (proximal) promoter elements in eukaryotes are:

b. nucleotide sequences that regulate the efficiency of transcription initiation.

77. Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?

a. a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2

78. Alternative RNA splicing

b. can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.

79. In eukaryotes, histone methylation ________, while histone acetylation __________.

e. represses transcription, promotes transcription

80. In human females, one X chromosome per cell is randomly inactivated during early embryonic development, forming a Barr Body. Much of the DNA in this chromosome is then in the form of

c. Heterochromatin

81. MicroRNAs (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) both function to "silence" genes, by

d. Binding to complementary RNA sequences to prevent translation

82. Which of the following occurs in eukaryotic, but not prokaryotic, gene expression?

c. A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.

83. Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they:

a. express different genes

84. The functioning of enhancers is an example of:

a. transcriptional control of gene expression

85. Viruses that attack bacteria are called:

a. phages.

86. In the bacteriophage shown above, the functions of the structures labeled 2 and 3 are

e. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= attachment to a host cell

87. Retroviruses like the HIV virus differ from other viruses by:

a. Using the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy their RNA into DNA.

88. All of the following are DNA viruses except:

b. The Influenza virus that causes the flu.

89. During the lytic life cycle of phages, which of the following occurs?

b. The host cell often dies, releasing many newly assembled copies of the virus.

90. MATCHING: Match the RNA viruses with the diseases they cause

a. x

b. y

c. z

d. w

91. The Prion Hypothesis (Dr. Stanley Pruissner) states that

d. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies result from the conversion of normal PrP-c to an abnormally folded PrP-sc state

92. Prion diseases of humans include:

a. Kuru.

b. Scrapie.

c. Mad Cow Disease.

d. Variant Creutfeld-Jacob disease (vCJD).

e. A and D

e. A and D

93. Which of the following characteristics, structures or processes is common to bacteria, viruses and prions?

c. Nucleic acids

94. Which of the recombinant DNA drugs is incorrectly matched with its indication (the disease it is prescribed to treat)?

c. Neupogen (Amgen): Mult iple sclerosis (interferon)

95. Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology

i) Ian Wilmut

ii) Jennifer Doudna

iii) W. French Anderson

iv) Shinya Yamanaka

v) Stanley Cohen

vi) Kary Mullis

vii) Herb Boyer

viii) James Thompson

ix) Fred Sanger

x) Craig Venter

a. First Human Gene Therapy

b. Dideoxy DNA Sequencing

c. Isolation of Bacterial Plasmids

d. Cloning of Dolly the Sheep

e. Derivation of Human Embryonic Stem Cells

f. Whole Genome Shotgun Sequencing

g. CRISPR Cas9

h. Isolation of Restriction Enzymes, Founder of Genentech

i. Polymerase Chain Reaction

j. Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells

i)D

ii)G

iii)A

iv)J

v)C

vi)I

vii)H

viii)E

ix)B

x)F

96. In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique, a heating phase and a cooling phase alternate in cycles. An original sample of DNA would have to pass through how many total cycles to amplify the DNA ~1 billion times? (What about 2 billion times? What about 1 trillion times?)

c. 30

97. This figure shows the steps in cloning the human insulin gene. What process or enzyme was used for Step 1?

e. a restriction enzyme

98. Gene Therapy treatments with new drugs like Kymirah and Yescarta (select all that apply)

b. Are the first FDA-approved drugs for personalized immunotherapy to treat specific leukemia

c. Involve the use of a genetically engineered Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell to recognize proteins like CD19 on cancer cells

99. Match the mAB (monoclonal Antibody) drug with the disease it is intended to treat.

a. Herceptin

b. Rituxin

c. Enbrel

d. Synagis

e. Avastin

(1) RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus)

(2) Cancer (anti-VEGF, anti-angiogenesis)

(3) HER-2+ breast cancer

(4) CD20+ Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

(5) T-cell autoimmune diseases like Rheumatoid arthritis and Psoriasis

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 1

e. 2

100. In the pGLO lab, how could you confirm that a transformed cell was expressing the bla gene?

b. It would grow on Amp plates