LectureOUTLINE_CH03 Medical, Ethical, and Legal Issues

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75 Question-and-Answer flashcards covering key medical, legal, and ethical concepts for EMTs, based on Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 12th Edition, Chapter 3.

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75 Terms

1
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What is the definition of consent in the EMS setting?

Permission granted by the patient for the EMT to render care or transport.

2
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What is expressed consent?

Consent that is given verbally or otherwise affirmatively by a patient who wants care.

3
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What additional requirement makes expressed consent valid?

The patient must receive informed consent—an explanation of the nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives of treatment.

4
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What is implied consent?

Consent assumed for an unresponsive or incapacitated patient when a serious threat to life or limb exists.

5
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When is implied consent typically used?

Only in true emergencies when the patient cannot make decisions and delaying care would endanger life or limb.

6
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What is involuntary consent?

Consent obtained for treatment of patients who are mentally ill, developmentally delayed, or in behavioral crisis, often via a legal guardian or law-enforcement authority.

7
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Which patient groups often require involuntary consent?

Mentally ill individuals, those in psychological crisis, and developmentally delayed persons.

8
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Who normally provides consent for a minor?

The minor’s parent or legal guardian.

9
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What is an emancipated minor?

A person younger than the legal age who is treated as an adult because of marriage, military service, parenthood, or court order.

10
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What does in loco parentis mean?

Teachers or school officials acting in place of parents and able to give consent for a minor’s care in school or camp settings.

11
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In a true emergency with no guardian available, how may a minor be treated?

Under implied consent.

12
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What is forcible restraint?

Physically or chemically restraining a patient who poses a danger to self or others and requires medical care or transport.

13
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Before using forcible restraint, what should an EMT do?

Consult medical control and involve law enforcement per local protocols.

14
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Once restraints are applied, when may they be removed en route?

Only if they endanger the patient; otherwise leave them in place until higher medical authority assumes care.

15
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What right does a competent adult have regarding treatment?

The right to refuse treatment or transport, even if it may result in death or serious injury.

16
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List the five key points an EMT should discuss when a patient considers refusing care.

Assessment findings, proposed treatment, risks of treatment, alternatives, and potential consequences of refusal.

17
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Why should online medical control be contacted during a refusal?

To validate the refusal process and provide additional documentation support.

18
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What form should a patient sign when refusing treatment?

A refusal of treatment/transport form, witnessed and documented by the EMT.

19
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What legal concept protects private patient information?

Confidentiality.

20
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What does HIPAA stand for?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

21
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What is Protected Health Information (PHI)?

Any medical or identifying data obtained while providing care that is protected under HIPAA.

22
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Give one situation in which patient records may be released without a subpoena.

When the patient signs a written release (other acceptable answers: billing necessity, mandated reporting).

23
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What general guideline should EMTs remember about social media use?

Maintain the same professionalism online as on duty and avoid posting identifiable patient information.

24
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What does the abbreviation DNR represent?

Do Not Resuscitate order.

25
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Does a DNR order equal "do not treat"?

No; supportive measures such as oxygen and pain relief should still be provided if the patient is not in cardiac arrest.

26
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What is an advance directive?

A written document that specifies a competent patient’s wishes for medical treatment if they become unable to decide.

27
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State one requirement of a valid written DNR order.

It must include a clear statement of the medical problem, patient or guardian signature, and physician signature (plus be dated within the last 12 months if expiration applies).

28
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What are POLST and MOLST forms?

Physician/Medical Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment that specify acceptable interventions for seriously ill patients.

29
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What is another name for a durable power of attorney for health care?

Health care proxy.

30
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Name two presumptive signs of death.

Examples: unresponsiveness to pain; absence of carotid pulse; no chest rise; absent reflexes; no pupillary response; no systolic BP; profound cyanosis; low body temperature.

31
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Give one definitive sign of death.

Obvious mortal injury (e.g., decapitation), dependent lividity, rigor mortis, algor mortis, or putrefaction.

32
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What physiological process causes rigor mortis?

Chemical changes that stiffen muscle tissue 2–12 hours after death.

33
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Who is generally notified for deaths without obvious natural causes?

The medical examiner or coroner.

34
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What is the EMT’s primary priority when treating a registered organ donor?

Preserve the patient’s life and provide high-quality care; organs require oxygen until surgical recovery.

35
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Where might an EMT locate patient medical alerts?

Bracelets, necklaces, keychains, wallet cards, or USB devices labeled as medical identification.

36
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Define scope of practice.

The range of patient care activities an EMT is legally allowed to perform, usually set by state law.

37
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Who authorizes EMT care via protocols?

The service’s medical director.

38
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What are online medical direction orders?

Real-time instructions received from a physician by phone or radio.

39
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Define standard of care.

The manner an EMT with similar training would act in similar circumstances.

40
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Give one common source that establishes a standard of care.

Local customs, state laws, professional guidelines, textbooks/NHTSA curriculum, or agency protocols.

41
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What is duty to act?

An individual’s legal obligation to provide patient care once a response begins or treatment is initiated.

42
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When does an EMT usually have a legal duty to act?

When responding on duty to an assigned call or once patient care has started.

43
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Define negligence.

Failure to provide the standard of care that another similarly trained person would have provided, causing harm.

44
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Name the four elements required to prove negligence.

Duty, breach of duty, damages, and causation.

45
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What does res ipsa loquitur mean in negligence cases?

"The thing speaks for itself"—the injury would not occur without negligence under the EMT’s control.

46
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What is negligence per se?

An act considered negligent because it violates a statute (e.g., performing an ALS skill beyond scope).

47
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What is a tort?

A civil wrong, such as defamation or invasion of privacy, actionable in civil court.

48
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Define abandonment in EMS.

Unilateral termination of care without patient consent and without ensuring equal or higher level care continues.

49
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What should an EMT obtain at hospital transfer to avoid abandonment claims?

A signature on the patient care record from the accepting provider.

50
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What is assault in the EMS context?

Putting someone in fear of immediate bodily harm, such as threatening unwarranted restraint.

51
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What constitutes battery by an EMT?

Unauthorized touching, including providing care without consent.

52
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How might kidnapping occur in EMS?

Transporting a patient against their will without lawful authority.

53
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What is false imprisonment?

Unauthorized confinement of a person, such as restraining without proper legal basis.

54
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Define defamation.

Communication of false information that harms someone’s reputation.

55
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Differentiate libel and slander.

Libel is written defamation; slander is spoken defamation.

56
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State one requirement for Good Samaritan law protection.

Acted in good faith, expected no compensation, stayed within scope, and did not act with gross negligence.

57
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What is gross negligence?

Willful or reckless disregard for accepted standard of care.

58
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What documentation principle do courts use regarding EMS reports?

If it wasn’t written, it wasn’t done; incomplete reports imply poor care.

59
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What does NEMSIS stand for or provide?

National EMS Information System—standardized collection and sharing of EMS data nationwide.

60
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List two situations EMTs are commonly mandated to report.

Examples: child abuse, elder abuse, drug-related injuries, felony injuries, childbirth, dog bites, certain communicable diseases, sexual assault, violent crime scenes, deaths, or patients in restraints.

61
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Define ethics in EMS.

The philosophy of right and wrong and the ideal standards of professional behavior.

62
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Define morality.

A personal or societal code of conduct affecting character and conscience.

63
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What is bioethics?

Ethical issues specifically related to health-care practice.

64
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What is applied ethics?

Putting ethical principles into professional action and decision making.

65
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When subpoenaed, whom should an EMT notify first?

The service director and the organization’s legal counsel.

66
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Name one legal defense available to an EMT in court.

Statute of limitations, governmental (sovereign) immunity, or contributory negligence.

67
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What is discovery in a lawsuit?

Pre-trial phase where both sides gather information to understand the case fully.

68
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Give two common discovery tools.

Interrogatories (written questions) and depositions (oral testimony under oath).

69
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Define compensatory damages.

Monetary awards intended to reimburse the plaintiff for actual injuries or losses.

70
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Define punitive damages.

Monetary awards intended to punish and deter particularly reckless or intentional misconduct.

71
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What is contributory negligence?

A defense claiming the plaintiff’s own actions contributed to the injury or damages.

72
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What is sovereign (governmental) immunity?

Legal protection limiting or preventing lawsuits against governmental EMS agencies.

73
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What is algor mortis?

The post-mortem cooling of the body until it reaches ambient temperature.

74
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What is dependent lividity?

Blood pooling to the lowest part of the body after death, causing skin discoloration.

75
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What is the emergency doctrine?

The principle that allows care under implied consent during life-threatening emergencies when consent cannot be obtained.

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