A & P - Exam 2

D. All the above are correct.

The function of the skeletal system is to _____.

A. protect various organs

B. store triglycerides

C. allow movement

D. All the above are correct.

B. compact bone

The cortex of the long bone's diaphysis is made of _____.

A. marrow

B. compact bone

C. spongy bone

D. articular cartilage

A. a bone mineral density test

A shorter, seventy-year-old Chinese woman comes to you with a broken hip. Which test do you order to check for osteoporosis?

A. a bone mineral density test

B. a thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) test

C. a CBC (complete blood count)

D. an alkaline phosphatase (ALP) test

C. osteoclasts

Which cells are stimulated by the hormones calcitriol and PTH (parathyroid hormone)?

A. osteogenic cells

B. osteoblasts

C. osteoclasts

D. osteocytes

A. femur; spongy

The _____ is an example of bone as an organ; _____ bone is an example of bone as a tissue.

A. femur; spongy

B. spongy; femur

C. skull; marrow

D. compact; sesamoid

D. Both A and C are correct.

Osteoclast(s) _____.

A. are formed from the fusion of cells from red bone marrow

B. build up bone

C. numbers are regulated by estrogen

D. Both A and C are correct.

A. mammary glands are modified apocrine sweat glands

Which of the following statements about mammary glands is true?

A. mammary glands are modified apocrine sweat glands

B. all breasts have functioning mammary glands that produce milk

C. primates (including humans) typically have 4 milk lines

D. All the above are correct.

C. periosteum; endosteum

A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the _____, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the _____.

A. epiphysis; diaphysis

B. endosteum; periosteum

C. periosteum; endosteum

D. compact bone; spongy bone

D. All the above are correct.

Skin _____.

A. has an acidic pH that retards the growth of microbes

B. contains melanin that prevents UV damage to cells

C. helps control body temperature via vasoconstriction and vasodilation

D. All the above are correct.

D. All the above are correct.

Collagen is synthesized by _____.

A. osteoblasts

B. fibroblasts

C. chondroblasts

D. All the above are correct.

B. by providing a counterforce to the fingertip

How can a fingernail enhance sensitivity to surrounding tissue?

A. by having multiple nerve endings along the free edge

B. by providing a counterforce to the fingertip

C. sensing light through the nail body

D. All the above are correct

A. fingertips

Skin covering the _____ has sweat glands but no hair follicles or sebaceous glands.

A. fingertips

B. forearm

C. buttocks

D. abdomen

D. Both A and B are correct.

Part of a long bone was found. To identify it as an adult’s bone, scientists will look for _____.

A. the epiphyseal line

B. yellow bone marrow

C. compact bone

D. Both A and B are correct.

C. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins

The hardness of bone comes from _____, whereas _____ provide(s) some degree of flexibility.

A. calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate

B. collagen and elastic fibers; minerals

C. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins

D. proteins; collagen

D. syndesmosis

The joint between the diaphyses of the radius and ulna is a _____.

A. gomphosis

B. symphysis

C. suture

D. syndesmosis

A. calcitriol

Synthesized by the combined action of the skin, kidneys, and liver, _____ promotes bone resorption but is also necessary for bone deposition.

A. calcitriol

B. estrogen

C. growth hormone

D. calcitonin

A. humeroscapular

One example of a multiaxial joint is the _____ joint.

A. humeroscapular

B. metatarsophalangeal

C. humeroulnar

D. proximal radioulnar

B. 4, 2, 1, 3

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture?

1. hard callus formation

2. soft callus formation

3. bone remodeling

4. hematoma formation

A. 4, 3, 1, 2

B. 4, 2, 1, 3

C. 2, 3, 1, 4

D. 2, 4, 1, 3

C. wrist

Radial (lateral) and ulnar (medial) collateral ligaments restrict side-to-side movements of the _____ joint.

A. hip

B. elbow

C. wrist

D. shoulder

B. knee

A meniscus could be found in which joint?

A. temporomandibular

B. knee

C. shoulder

D. elbow

C. fascicles

Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called _____.

A. compartments

B. groups

C. fascicles

D. aponeuroses

A. synchondrosis; synovial

The joint between the first costal cartilage and the sternum is a _____, whereas the other costal cartilages are joined to the sternum by _____ joints.

A. synchondrosis; synovial

B. symphysis; cartilaginous

C. syndesmosis; synovial

D. synostosis; cartilaginous

A. titin

Which protein holds the thick filaments in place and anchors it to the Z discs and the M line?

A. titin

B. tropomyosin

C. myomesin

D. dystrophin

A. actin and myosin - motor proteins

Correctly match the protein(s) to their function(s).

A. actin and myosin - motor proteins

B. tropomyosin - binds Ca2+ and changes shape

C. dystrophin - connects thick filaments to the sarcolemma

D. All the above are correct.

B. orbicularis

The _____ muscle arrangement allows you to pucker your lips for whistling.

A. pennate

B. orbicularis

C. convergent

D. parallel

B. when increasing the strength of a stimulus causes

Recruitment occurs _____ an increase in the strength of contraction.

A. when increasing the frequency of stimulation causes

B. when increasing the strength of a stimulus causes

C. when complete relaxation of the muscle occurs and the next stimulus causes

D. when a second stimulus arrives after the refractory period and causes

C. the interosseous membrane

Which of the following is not an anatomical component of a synovial joint?

A. articular cartilage

B. the joint cavity

C. the interosseous membrane

D. the synovial membrane

D. antagonists

What term best describes the relationship between a muscle that pronates the forearm (the pronator quadratus) and a muscle that supinates the forearm (the supinator)?

A. depressors

B. synergists

C. prime movers

D. antagonists

C. 1, 2

A motor unit is composed of _____.

1. muscle fiber

2. motor neuron

3. sensory neuron

4. tendon

5. joint

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

B. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 2

D. 2, 3, 4

B. Wave summation

_____ occurs when increasing the frequency of a stimulus causes an increase in the strength of contraction.

A. Conductivity

B. Wave summation

C. Recruitment

D. Excitability

C. neuromuscular junction

The _____ is the site where acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the motor end plate.

A. sarcomere

B. motor unit

C. neuromuscular junction

D. thick filament

D. smooth and cardiac muscle

Which muscle(s) can contract without the need for nervous stimulation?

A. skeletal muscle only

B. smooth muscle only

C. cardiac muscle only

D. smooth and cardiac muscle

D. Both A and B are correct.

A person starts from rest and runs very fast for 2 minutes. The energy for muscle contraction is provided by _____.

A. creatine phosphate

B. anaerobic respiration

C. aerobic respiration

D. Both A and B are correct.

D. the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle

Where would you expect to find numerous gap junctions in muscular tissue?

A. the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

B. the sarcolemma of skeletal muscle

C. multiunit smooth muscle

D. the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle

B. creatine kinase

The transfer of phosphate from CP (creatine phosphate) to ADP is catalyzed by _____.

A. myokinase

B. creatine kinase

C. cAMP

D. creatinine

C. to neutralize carbon dioxide buildup

Which of the following is not a purpose of the excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) in muscle?

A. to replenish the phosphagen system

B. to restore resting levels of ATP and CP

C. to neutralize carbon dioxide buildup

D. to serve elevated metabolic rate

A. an isometric contraction

An increase of muscle tension while it maintains constant length is called _____.

A. an isometric contraction

B. a muscle twitch

C. temporal summation

D. an isotonic contraction

E. Dendritic cells

Which cell is only found in the stratum spinosum and the stratum granulosum?

A. tactile cells

B. Melanocytes

C. Keratinocytes

D. Stem cells

E. Dendritic cells

C. keratin

Which of the following is not a type of hair?

A. downy

B. vellus

C. keratin

D. terminal

E. all of these are types of hair

A. Each scalp hair can grow for several years before falling out.

Four of the five statements below are common misconceptions about hair and fingernails. Which one is true?

A. Each scalp hair can grow for several years before falling out.

B. Cutting hair makes it grow faster and thicker.

C. Emotional stress can make hair turn white overnight.

D. Hair and nails continue to grow after a person dies.

E. Eating foods like gelatin that contain a lot of collagen will make nails harder.

D. The subcutaneous tissue is highly vascular

Why are injections frequently administered into the hypodermis?

A. the subcutaneous tissue has many nerve endings

B. it is too difficult to administer medication to the epidermis

C. the dead cells of the dermis limit diffusion

D. The subcutaneous tissue is highly vascular

B. Dermal papillae help strengthen the connection between the dermis and epidermis and help prevent friction-related damage in high-use areas

Dermal papillae are numerous in palmar and plantar skin but few in number in the skin of the face and abdomen. What do you think is the functional significance of this difference?

A. The palmar and plantar regions are covered with thick skin, and the face and abdomen are covered with thin skin. Only thick skin has a papillary layer.

B. Dermal papillae help strengthen the connection between the dermis and epidermis and help prevent friction-related damage in high-use areas

C. Since dermal papillae contain blood vessels, they will be more prevalent in regions of skin that have higher metabolic demand.

D. The hypodermis of the face and abdomen contain thicker fat layers, which push up through the collagen fibers under the skin and make the dermis appear smoother.

E. These areas need a more robust epidermal water barrier since they are more likely to get wet.

C. Epidermal cells die as they move away from their nutrient supply in the dermis.

Why are the cells in the stratum corneum dead?

A. Once they reach the skin surface, exposure to environmental stresses, like drying and UV light, kills the cells.

B. All cells in your body die after about a month, which is how long it takes for a cell to reach the stratum corneum.

C. Epidermal cells die as they move away from their nutrient supply in the dermis.

D. Accumulating keratin filaments dry out the cytoplasm and kill the cell.

B. areolar tissue; dense irregular connective tissue

The papillary layer of the dermis is made up of _________, and the reticular layer of the dermis is made up of _________.

A. areolar tissue; reticular connective tissue

B. areolar tissue; dense irregular connective tissue

C. epithelial tissue; adipose tissue

D. dense regular connective tissue; areolar tissue

E. dense irregular connective tissue; adipose tissue

C. Bundles of densely packed collagen fibers help the skin withstand stretching in many different directions.

How does the structure of the reticular dermis relate to its functional properties?

A. The loose network of branching reticular fibers provides a scaffolding to help store large numbers of white blood cells.

B. Multiple layers of large, round adipocytes store fat. 

C. Bundles of densely packed collagen fibers help the skin withstand stretching in many different directions.

D. The clear, glassy matrix provides cushioning and support.

E. The loosely organized tissue allows the diffusion of nutrients and the movement of white blood cells between the dermis and the avascular epidermis.

C. The loosely organized tissue allows the diffusion of nutrients and the movement of white blood cells between the dermis and the avascular epidermis.

How does the structure of the papillary dermis relate to its functional properties?

A. The sparse network of branching reticular fibers provides a scaffolding to help store large numbers of white blood cells.

B. The clear, glassy matrix provides cushioning and support.

C. The loosely organized tissue allows the diffusion of nutrients and the movement of white blood cells between the dermis and the avascular epidermis.

D. Multiple layers of large, round adipocytes store fat. 

B. sweat

What do apocrine glands produce?

A. eledin

B. sweat

C. milk

D. wax

E. oil

D. An oily substance that helps moisturize the skin and hair 

What is sebum?

A. A thin, watery sweat that helps cool the body through evaporation

B. A fat and protein rich fluid that is secreted as nourishment for babies

C. A waxy substance that helps kill bacteria in the ear canal.

D. An oily substance that helps moisturize the skin and hair 

E. A thick, fatty-acid rich sweat that contributes to body odor

B. Both types of glands release their products into hair follicles.

Which of the following statements is true? 

A. The sebaceous gland duct opens directly onto the skin surface, and the apocrine gland empties into a hair follicle.

B. Both types of glands release their products into hair follicles.

C. Both types of glands have ducts that open directly onto the skin surface through pores.

D. The apocrine gland duct opens directly onto the skin surface, and the sebaceous gland empties into a hair follicle.

E. Neither type of gland has a duct.

C. The apocrine gland has a clear lumen, the sebaceous gland does not.

Which of the following statements is true? 

A. Although both glands have clear lumina, the lumen of the sebaceous gland is much larger than that of the apocrine gland.

B. Neither type of gland has a clear lumen.

C. The apocrine gland has a clear lumen, the sebaceous gland does not.

D. Both glands have large, clear lumina.

E. The sebaceous gland has a clear lumen, the apocrine gland does not.

E. simple cuboidal; stratified cuboidal

The secretory portion of apocrine sweat glands is made up of _________ epithelium, and the secretory portion of sebaceous glands is made up of _________ epithelium.

A. simple squamous; stratified squamous

B. simple cuboidal; simple squamous

C. stratified squamous; simple cuboidal

D. stratified columnar; simple squamous

E. simple cuboidal; stratified cuboidal

B. False, fixation

True or False: Adding pins and plates to a fracture to aid repair is called traction.

A. True

B. False

D. Hematoma formation → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → bone remodeling

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture?

A. Hematoma formation → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → bone remodeling

B. Bone remodeling → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation

C. Soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation → bone remodeling

D. Hematoma formation → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → bone remodeling

E. Bone remodeling → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → hematoma formation

D. osteoblasts

Bone-forming cells are called _________.

A. osteocytes

B. osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells

C. osteons

D. osteoblasts

E. osteoclasts

A. epiphyseal line

The thin layer of slightly denser spongy bone that separates an adult's epiphysis from the diaphysis is called the _________.

A. epiphyseal line

B. periosteum

C. metaphysis

C. diaphyseal line

E. growth plate

B. cartilage growth

Bone elongation is a result of _________.

A. muscle growth

B. cartilage growth

C. fibrous membrane addition

D. osseous tissue growth

E. dense irregular connective tissue addition

E. DNA synthesis

Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except _________.

A. muscle contraction

B. communication among neurons

C. blood clotting

D. exocytosis

E. DNA synthesis

B. False

True or False: Concentric lamellae within an osteon are connected by lacunae.

A. True

B. False

E. calcitriol

Synthesized by the combined action of the skin, kidneys, and liver, _________ promotes bone resorption but is also necessary for bone deposition.

A. estrogen

B. testosterone

C. growth hormone

D. calcitonin

E. calcitriol

C. lacunae; osteocytes

The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called _________blank, and they contain _________.

A. lacunae; osteoclasts

B. canaliculi; osteoblasts

C. lacunae; osteocytes

D. central canals; osteocytes

E. osteons; stem cells

C. periosteum; endosteum

A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the _________, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the _________.

A. endosteum; periosteum

B. epiphysis; diaphysis

C. periosteum; endosteum

D. diaphysis; epiphysis

E. compact bone; spongy bone

A. true

True or False: Hypercalcemia is rare, but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions.

A. true

B. false

E. resorption

The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as _________.

A. mineral deposition

B. ossification

C. crystallization

D. mineralization

E. resorption

B. estrogen

Osteoporosis is more common in elderly females because of the lack of _________.

A. osteoblasts

B. estrogen

C. exercise

D. dietary calcium

E. parathyroid hormone

C. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins

The hardness of bone comes from _________, whereas _________ provide(s) some degree of flexibility.

A. proteins; collagen

B. glycoproteins; proteoglycans

C. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins

D. collagen and elastic fibers; minerals

E. calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate

D. metaphysis

The _________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where, in children and adolescents, bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.

A. osteoid tissue

B. epiphyseal tissue

C. secondary ossification center

D. metaphysis

E. primary ossification center

D. rickets; osteomalacia

The result of blood calcium and phosphate levels being too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called _________ in children and _________ in adults.

A. osteomalacia; rickets

B. osteoporosis; osteomalacia

C. osteomyelitis; osteosarcoma

D. rickets; osteomalacia

E. osteomyelitis; osteomalacia

A. The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate.

Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition?

A. The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate.

B. Solubility product is reached in the tissue fluids

C. Collagen is digested by enzymes and hydroxyapatite by hydrochloric acid.
D. Osteoblasts neutralize inhibitors that prevent bone resorption.

E. Osteoclasts secrete acid phosphatase that digests collagen.

A. an elevated level of osteoblast activity

If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, we would expect _________.

A. an elevated level of osteoblast activity

B. increasingly brittle bones

C. an elevated level of osteoclast activity

D. a reduced rate of endochondral ossification

E. a rise in blood calcium concentration

E. hydroxyapatite

Which of the following is an inorganic component of the bone matrix?

A. glycoproteins

B. proteoglycans

C. collagen

D. glycosaminoglycans

E. hydroxyapatite

B. False

True or False: Red bone marrow is important in the production of new bone cells. 

A. True

B. False

D. cell proliferation

Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of _________ of the metaphysis.

A. reverse cartilage

B. calcification

C. bone deposition

D. cell proliferation

E. cell hypertrophy

A. flat bones of the skull

Intramembranous ossification produces the _________.

A. flat bones of the skull

B. short bones of the wrist

C. short bones of the ankle

D. long bones of the limbs

E. irregular bones of the vertebrae

A. true

True or False: Bones, cartilage, and ligaments are tissues and organs of the skeletal system.

A. true

B. false

E. appositional growth

Mature bones are remodeled throughout life via a process known as _________.

A. metaphysical growth

B. interstitial growth

C. intramembranous ossification

D. endochondral ossification

E. appositional growth

E. yellow bone marrow

Red bone marrow does not contain _________.

A. hematopoietic tissue

B. red blood cells

C. white blood cells

D. myeloid tissue

E. yellow bone marrow

A. true

True or False: The hematopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue.

A. true

B. false

D. hyaline cartilage

In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is _________, which is replaced by bone.

A. fibrocartilage

B. fibrous membranes

C. transitional epithelium

D. hyaline cartilage

E. embryonic mesenchyme

D. mechanical stress on bone remodeling

Wolff's law of bone explains the effect of _________.

A. different diets on bone elongation

B. age on bone thickening

C. sex on bone widening

D. mechanical stress on bone remodeling

E. temperature on bone growth

C. epiphyseal plate

Achondroplastic dwarfism is a hereditary condition, in which the long bones of the limbs fail to elongate normally because of reduced hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cartilage in the _________.

A. secondary bone marrow

B. secondary ossification center

C. epiphyseal plate

D. primary bone marrow

E. primary ossification center

E. osteoclasts

Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes?

A. osteocytes

B. osteogenic cells

C. osteoblasts

D. stem cells

E. osteoclasts

B. sutures

Most of the bones of the skull are connected by immovable joints called _________.

A. syndesmoses

B. sutures

C. symphyses

D. fissures

E. sinuses

E. ethmoid

Which of the bones below does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?

A. patella

B. clavicle

C. fibula

D. ulna

E. ethmoid

A. appendicular skeleton

Which structure is highlighted in blue?

A. appendicular skeleton

B. cranial cavity

C. sacrum

D. thoracic cage

E. axial skeleton

D. frontal bone and mandible

Which cranial bones are separate right and left bones at birth but generally fuse by the age of 5?

A. frontal bone and maxilla

B. mandible and maxilla

C. frontal bone and occipital bone

D. frontal bone and mandible

C. humerosacpular

One example of a multiaxial joint is the _________ joint.

A. metatasophalangeal

B. atlantantoaxial

C. humerosacpular

D. humeroulnar

E. promixal radioulnar

B. False, synovial

True or False: Bony joints are the most common type of joints.

A. True

B. False

B. False, head of the femur and the acetabulum of the pelvic bone

True or False: The coxal joint is a ball-and-socket joint, in which the head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.

A. True

B. False

C. the length of the bone

Which of the following is not a factor that determines the range of motion of a joint?

A. the shapes of bone surfaces

B. the action of the muscles associated with the joint

C. the length of the bone

D. the strength of the ligaments

E. the stiffness of the ligaments

B. false

True or False: A meniscus is a type of bursa seen in the space between the femur and tibia.

A. true

B. false

B. articular cartilage

The smooth, connective tissue lining that covers the opposing bony surfaces of a synovial joint is called _________.

A. a synovial membrane

B. articular cartilage

C. a ligament

D. the fibrous capsule

E. the joint cavity

A. true

True or False: The forearm acts as a third-class lever during flexion of the elbow.

A. true

B. false

B. bursa

A(n) _________ is a sac of fluid associated with a synovial joint.

A. synovial vescile

B. bursa

C. articular cavity

D. articular sac

E. meniscus

D. flexion and extension

A monoaxial joint, like the elbow, is capable of which one of the following movements?

A. circumduction

B. rotation

C. abduction

D. flexion and extension

E. supination and pronation

A. condylar

The metacarpophalangeal joints at the base of the fingers are _________ joints.

A. condylar

B. plane (gliding)

C. hinge

D. pivot

E. ball-and-socket

C. extend

When you walk up the stairs, your hip and knee joints _________ to lift your body weight.

A. flex

B. abduct

C. extend

D. rotate

E. adduct

D. pivot

The proximal radioulnar joint is a _________ joint.

A. hinge

B. saddle

C. condylar

D. pivot

E. ball-and-socket

C. subpatellar

The _________ bursa is not an accessory structure of the glenohumeral joint.

A. subacromial

B. subdeltoid

C. subpatellar

D. subscapular

E. subcoracoid

D. symphysis

The joint between the L2 and L3 vertebrae is a _________.

A. gomphosis

B. syndemosis

C. synostosis

D. symphysis

E. synchondrosis

E. fibular (lateral) collateral ligament (LCL)

The ligament that attaches the lateral femoral epicondyle to the fibula is called the _________.

A. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

B. tibial (medial) collateral ligament (MCL)

C. posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

D. patellar ligament

E. fibular (lateral) collateral ligament (LCL)