Organisational Behaviour

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Q: What is Organizational Behavior?

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87 Terms

1

Q: What is Organizational Behavior?

A: The study of human processes, personality, attitudes, values, actions, and behaviors within an organization.

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2

Q: Why study Organizational Behavior?

A: To understand oneself, colleagues, customers, partners, opponents, and as a foundation of emotional intelligence.

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3

Q: What are the three factors that drive human attitudes?

A: Organizational, group, and individual factors.

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4

Q: Define "Personality" in Organizational Behavior.

A: The pattern of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that make a person unique, influencing reactions and interactions with others.

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5

Q: What are examples of measurable personality traits?

A: Empathy, extraversion, and assertiveness.

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6

Q: What is the Person-Organization (PO) Fit Theory?

A: A theory that suggests hiring employees based on the personality needed for the job to decrease turnover and increase satisfaction.

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7

Q: How is personality-job fit assessed?

A: Using psychometric tests, simulations, and situational analysis questions.

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8

Q: What do cognitive ability tests measure?

A: Intelligence, aptitude, and what a person "can do."

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9

Q: What do personality tests measure?

A: Attitudes, values, motivation, and what a person "will do."

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10

Q: What does the OCEAN acronym stand for in personality traits?

A: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism.

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11

Q: How does OCEAN describe personality traits?

A: As ranges, with individuals falling somewhere between each of the five traits.

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12

Q: What does the DISC model describe?

A: Behavioral tendencies and communication styles.

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13

Q: What are the four DISC types?

A: Dominant, Influential, Steady, and Compliant.

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14

Q: Describe the "Dominant" DISC type.

A: Direct, decisive, domineering, and demanding.

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15

Q: Describe the "Influential" DISC type.

A: Inspirational, interactive, impulsive, and sometimes irritating.

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16

Q: Describe the "Steady" DISC type.

A: Stable, supportive, slow, and sensitive.

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17

Q: Describe the "Compliant" DISC type.

A: Cautious, careful, calculating, and sometimes condescending.

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18

Define "Emotion" in Organizational Behavior.

A: A complex reaction pattern involving behavioral and physiological elements; there are around 27 types of emotions.

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19

Q: How can emotions be categorized?

A: As negative/positive, high/low intensity, and primary/social.

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20

Q: What are productive emotion regulation strategies?

A: Positive appraisal, acceptance, emotional processing, and cognitive re-appraisal.

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21

Q: What are maladaptive emotion regulation strategies?

A: Behavioral avoidance, thought suppression, expressive suppression, rumination, and denial.

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22

Q: Why do we have emotions?

A: For evolutionary reasons—emotions help in behavior regulation, relationship quality, decision making, performance, and creativity.

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23

Q: Do emotions make us irrational?

A: No, emotions provide valuable information that helps us understand the world and make decisions.

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24

Q: How do emotions differ from moods?

A: Emotions are specific, intense, brief, numerous, and usually expressed, while moods are general, long-lasting, less intense, and often unexpressed.

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25

Q: What is Emotional Intelligence?

A: A set of skills including self-awareness, self-management, self-motivation, empathy, and social skills.

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26

Q: What is burnout?

A: A state of exhaustion, alienation, and reduced performance with psychological and psychosomatic consequences.

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27

Q: What is motivation?

A: The process that determines an individual's intensity, direction, persistence, and willingness to meet needs and energizes behavior.

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28

Q: Does money solely motivate people?

A: No, money is not the only motivator; other factors like achievement and recognition are also important.

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29

Q: What is Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?

A: A theory that suggests lower needs must be met to address higher needs, moving from physiological to safety, belongingness, esteem, and finally, self-actualization.

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30

Q: What are the three needs in the Three Needs Theory?

A: Achievement, power, and affiliation.

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31

Q: What defines a "group"?

A: A collection of people who are random, with no cohesion or organization.

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32

Q: What defines a "team"?

A: A group with complementary skills, working toward a common goal, holding each other accountable.

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33

Q: What are group dynamics?

A: The behaviors and psychological processes that occur within a group, influenced by size, needs, and cohesion.

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34

Q: What is "social loafing"?

A: When individuals work less in a group because it’s harder to identify who isn’t contributing.

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35

Q: What is "diffusion of responsibility"?

A: When group output suffers as individuals feel less personal accountability, often leading to freeriding.

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36

Q: What is cohesion in a group context?

A: The unity of a group for social and task purposes, based on a common goal, trust, prior success, and external threats.

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37

Q: What happens with too much or too little group cohesion?

A: Too much cohesion can lead to low motivation, while too little can lead to competition and conflicts.

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38

Q: What are norms in a group?

A: Shared guidelines that direct behavior, providing order and helping group members understand each other's actions.

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39

Q: What is conformity?

A: A social influence where individuals change their beliefs or behaviors to align with the group.

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40

Q: What factors influence conformity?

A: Task difficulty, group differences, situational characteristics, and cultural backgrounds.

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41

Q: What are the stages of team development?

A: Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.

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42

Q: Describe the "Forming" stage of team development.

A: Initial stage where team members meet, learn about the goals, and start forming roles.

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43

Q: Describe the "Storming" stage of team development.

A: Members may experience conflicts as they assert individual perspectives and clarify roles.

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44

Q: Describe the "Norming" stage of team development.

A: The team establishes norms and expectations, leading to improved cooperation.

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45

Q: Describe the "Performing" stage of team development.

A: The team functions effectively and focuses on reaching the shared goal.

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46

Q: Describe the "Adjourning" stage of team development.

A: The team completes the task and disbands, or individuals prepare to move on.

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47

Q: What is communication?

A: The transmission of meaning through information, knowledge, attitude, and emotion.

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48

Q: What is "noise" in communication?

A: Interference with message clarity caused by excess information, lack of clarity, jargon, poor listening, emotions, and cultural differences.

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49

Q: What are the three types of biases against social groups?

  • Affective Bias: Prejudice (prior judgment).

  • Behavioral Bias: Discrimination (unequal treatment).

  • Cognitive Bias: Stereotypes (beliefs about traits of a group).

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50

Q: What is the "halo effect"?

A: A bias where one positive trait makes a person seem better overall than they are.

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51

Q: What is official organizational communication?

A: Formal communication involving instructions, reporting, strategy sharing, and explanations.

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52

Q: Describe "top-down" communication.

A: Authoritarian, clear, and effective, but with little room for creativity.

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53

Q: Describe "bottom-up" communication.

A: Promotes engagement, motivation, and initiative, but may slow decision-making and lack direction.

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54

Q: Describe "lateral" communication.

A: Encourages interaction across levels, preventing rumors and silo effects.

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55

Q: What are Aristotle’s three modes of persuasion?

A:

  • Ethos: Credibility of the speaker.

  • Pathos: Emotional appeal.

  • Logos: Logical evidence and reasoning.

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56

Q: What are Cialdini's 6 Principles of Persuasion?

A:

  1. Reciprocity: Obligation to return favors.

  2. Scarcity: Valuing rare opportunities.

  3. Authority: Trusting knowledgeable sources.

  4. Consistency: Aligning actions with past commitments.

  5. Liking: Agreeing with people we like.

  6. Consensus: Following others’ behaviors.

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57

Q: What is the effect of conflict on performance?

A: Conflict can be destructive and dysfunctional or, if managed well, can lead to healthy debate and constructive outcomes.

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58

Q: What is "task conflict"?

A: Disagreement over goals, project plans, rules, or tools; it is dysfunctional if it hinders performance.

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59

Q: What is "process conflict"?

A: Conflict over roles, delegation, and methods, often involving issues like credit or favoritism; usually dysfunctional.

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60

Q: What is "relationship conflict"?

A: Personal clashes or perceived offenses, psychologically draining and always dysfunctional.

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61

Q: What is the "Turtle" conflict style?

A: Avoid and Withdraw: Used for minor issues, when emotions are high, or information is lacking.

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62

Q: What is the "Teddy Bear" conflict style?

A: Smoothing/Accommodate: Used for minor issues when the other party is more important or powerful.

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63

Q: What is the "Fox" conflict style?

A: Compromise: Used when both parties need to win, but a true win-win isn’t possible.

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64

Q: What is the "Owl" conflict style?

A: Collaborate: Used when consensus is required, multiple inputs are needed, and a long-term solution is desired.

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65

Q: What is the "Lion" conflict style?

A: Force/Dominate: Used for quick solutions in high-stakes situations, with stakeholders of low importance and enough power to enforce it.

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66

Q: What is power?

A: The ability to influence or control the behavior of others.

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67

Q: What are the five sources of power?

A: Coercive, legitimate, reward, expert, and referent.

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68

Q: What is coercive power?

A: Achieves compliance through fear, involuntary; requires high surveillance and stability.

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69

Q: What is legitimate power?

A: Power from social conformity; requires high surveillance and stability, voluntary response is neutral or negative.

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70

Q: What is reward power?

A: Based on motivation through expectancy; requires moderate voluntariness, surveillance, and stability.

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71

Q: What is expert power?

A: Power from skill and knowledge, influencing through expertise; low stability, low surveillance, and neutral to positive voluntariness.

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72

Q: What is referent power?

A: Based on affiliation; low stability, low surveillance, and positive voluntariness.

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73

Q: Why is it important to understand the limitations of power?

A: Different audiences and situations require different sources of power.

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74

Q: What is leadership?

A: The ability to influence a group toward achieving a goal.

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75

Q: What is management?

A: The use of authority within designated formal ranks to gain compliance from organizational members.

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76

Q: What does the Trait Theory of Leadership emphasize?

A: Leaders possess innate traits that make them effective.

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77

Q: What are the key traits in Trait Theory?

A: Physical appearance, sociability, personality, intelligence, and ambition.

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78

Q: What do Michigan Studies identify in leadership behavior?

A: Job-centered (focus on productivity) and employee-centered (focus on satisfaction and relationships).

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79

Q: What do Ohio State Studies identify in leadership behavior?

A: Task-oriented (standards, rules) and people-oriented (friendly, accessible).

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80

Q: What do Contingency Theories of Leadership propose?

A: Leaders should adapt their style to fit the situation and follower readiness.

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81

Q: What is the Hersey-Blanchard Situational Leadership Theory?

A: Suggests leaders adapt based on followers’ task readiness and psychological readiness.

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82

Q: What are the leadership styles in Hersey-Blanchard?

A: High guidance (unskilled, motivated), coaching, supportive, and delegative (skilled, motivated).

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83

Q: What does the Vroom-Yetton Model address?

A: Leadership decision styles, from autocratic to consultative to group-based.

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84

Q: What are autocratic decision styles (AI, AII)?

A: The leader decides alone or with minimal input.

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85

Q: What are consultative decision styles (CI, CII)?

A: The leader consults individually or with a group.

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86

Q: What is the group-based decision style (GII)?

A: Group discussion with consensus.

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87

Q: What factors affect the Vroom-Yetton decision style?

A: Quality requirements, time constraints, leader's information, problem complexity, and need for acceptance.

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