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Which organelle is responsible for immediate protein processing after the process of translation?
A. Mitochondrion
D. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Ribosome
D. Golgi apparatus
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about a prokaryote?
A. Their cells do not contain membrane bound organelles.
B. The central dogma in prokaryotes is compartmentalized.
C. Their genetic materials are present only in the cytosol.
D. They contain ribosomes.
B. The central dogma in prokaryotes is compartmentalized.
Which of the following is TRUE of proteins?
A. Their building blocks are called peptides.
B. Their building blocks are held by very strong H-bonds.
C. The sequence of the building blocks of a protein dictates its primary structure.
D. They carry hereditary information.
C. The sequence of the building blocks of a protein dictates its primary structure.
What is the distinguishable group or moiety found in arginine's R group?
C. Guanido
A. Indole
D. Thioether
B. Imidazole
C. Guanido
Rotation of polarized light is possible in solutions of all of the following amino acids EXCEPT:
C. alanine
A. serine
D. glycine
B. leucine
D. glycine
Replacement of Val in the peptide Ala-Val-Ser with Gln will make the peptide:
A. more positive
C. more polar
B. more negative
D. less polar
C. more polar
Which of the following will give a different results in the Ninhydrin Test?
A. R
C. Y
B. F
D. P
D. P
Which test detects the presence of aromatic amino acids?
A. Ninhydrin Test
C. Sakaguchi Test
B. Xanthoproteic Test
D. Millon-Nasse Test
B. Xanthoproteic Test
Which reagent is specific for tryptophan?
A nitric acid
B. lead sulfide
C. glyoxylic acid
D. A and B
C. glyoxylic acid
Which of the following are essential amino acids?
A. Leucine
B. Tyrosine
C. Threonine
D. Two of the above
E. All of the above
D. Two of the above
Which of the following are aromatic amino acids?
A. Tyrosine
B. Tryptophan
D. A and C
E. All of the above
C. Phenylalanine
E. All of the above
Which of the following amino acids are nonpolar?
A. Tyrosine
B. Tryptophan
D. A and B
E. B and C
C. Lysine
B. Tryptophan
This level of organization describes the sequence of the amino acids dictated by the order of their peptide bonds.
A. Primary
C. Tertiary
B. Secondary
D. Quaternary
A. Primary
Which stabilizes the helical or sheet-like shape of a peptide?
A. ionic interactions
C. disulfide bonds
B. peptide bonds
D. hydrogen bonds
D. hydrogen bonds
Hemoglobin is a protein found in our red blood cells. It is responsible for oxygen transport. If hemoglobin is a protein which contains 4 subunits, what protein structure does it possess?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
D. Quaternary
Process of disrupting the protein's native conformation without destroying it.
A. Melting
C. Splicing
D. Hydrolysis destroying
B. Denaturation
B. Denaturation
A molecule that is acted upon by an enzyme is:
A. Cofactor
C. Coenzyme
B. Prosthetic group
D. Substrate
D. Substrate
The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
C. Holoenzyme
A. Prosthetic group
B. Apoenzyme
D. Zymogen
B. Apoenzyme
The enzyme, alcohol dehydrogenase, converts ethanol to ethanal. It should have an EC number of:
A. 1
C. 4
B. 3
D. 6
A. 1
In this type of inhibition, the Vmax decreases and the Km remains the same.
A. competitive
C. uncompetitive
B. non-competitive
D. B and C
B. non-competitive
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
A. Ribose is an aldopentose.
C. Glucose is an aldohexose.
B. Maltose is a ketohexose.
D. Galactose is an aldohexose.
B. Maltose is a ketohexose.
Glucose and mannose are epimers at:
A. Carbon 2
C. Carbon 4
B. Carbon 3
D. Carbon 5
A. Carbon 2
These are types of bonds responsible for linking monosaccharides to form chains of carbohydrates:
A. Peptide bonds
C. Glycosidic bonds
B. Phosphoanhydride bonds
D. Phosphodiester bonds
C. Glycosidic bonds
Alpha-naphthol test is also known as:
A. Molisch Test
C. Anthrone Test
B. Ninhydrin Test
D. Benedict's Test
A. Molisch Test
The following are tests for reducing sugars, EXCEPT:
A. Benedict's Test
C. Felling's Test
B. Barfoed's Test
D. Seliwanoffs Test
D. Seliwanoffs Test
Specific test for galactose.
A. Osazone Test
C. Mucic Acid Test
B. Kowarsky Test
D. Phloroglucinol Test
C. Mucic Acid Test
Identify the unknown sugar that yields the followings tests:
Fehling's Test: brick-red ppt. reducing
Barfoed's Test: fast production of brick-red ppt. mono
Mucic acid Test: soluble
Bial's Test: green solution pentose
Seliwanoffs Test: cherry-red solution ketose
A. Ribulose
C. Fructose
B. Ribose
D. Galactose
A. Ribulose
These are substances grouped together on the basis of their insolubility in water and solubility in most organic solvents.
A. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. Nucleic acids
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
Saturated Fatty Acid with 12 carbons:
A. Capric acid
C. Myristic acid
B. Lauric acid
D. Palmitic acid
B. Lauric acid
This lipid provides stored energy and insulation:
A. Triacylglycerol (Triglycerides)
B. Phospholipids
C. Spingolipids
D. Cholesterol
A. Triacylglycerol (Triglycerides)
The following are important functions of cholesterol, EXCEPT:
A. It regulates the fluidity of cell membranes.
B. It acts as a precursor for bile acids, vitamin D, and steroid hormones.
C. It is the main sterol form found in plants.
D. It is important in the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex hormones.
C. It is the main sterol form found in plants.
Building blocks of nucleic acids:
A. Nucleotides
B. Nucleosides
C. Amino acids
D. Purine and pyrimidine bases
A. Nucleotides
What is the composition of a nucleoside?
A. Sugar + phosphate
B. Base + phosphate
C. Base + sugar
D. Base + sugar + phosphate
C. Base + sugar
The following are examples of pyrimidines, EXCEPT:
A. Cystosine
B. Uracil
C. Thymine
D. Adenine
D. Adenine
This nitrogenous base can only be found in the structure of RNA
A. A
C. C
B. G
D. U
D. U
Which direction does genetic information flow during gene expression?
A. DNA -› Protein -> RNA
C. RNA - Protein - DNA
B. Protein -> RNA - DNA
D. DNA -> RNA -> Protein
D. DNA -> RNA -> Protein
Degeneracy of the genetic code refers to the fact that:
A. Codons do not overlap
B. There are more codons than amino acids
C. Code is not universal
D. The genetic code is not always a triple code
B. There are more codons than amino acids
Which of the following is the initiation codon?
A. AUG
B. UGA
C. CUA
D. GAA
A. AUG
This type of mutation causes changes in the coded amino acid.
A. Silent
B. Missense
C. Nonsense
D. Transverse
B. Missense
Which of the following is TRUE about glycolysis?
A. It results to increased blood sugar.
B. It aims to produce acetyl-CoA from glucose.
C.It is catabolic.
D. The last five steps consume energy.
C.It is catabolic.
Enzyme/s which catalyze the irreversible reactions in glycolysis.
I. PFK 1
II. Hexokinase
Ill. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
IV. Pyruvate kinase
A. I
B. I, II
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, IV
D. I, II, IV
Which enzyme catalyzes the substrate-level phosphorvlation step in the Krebs' Cycle?
A. aconitase
C. malate dehydrogenase
B. citrate synthase
D. succinyl-CoA synthetase
D. succinyl-CoA synthetase
It occurs during hypoglycemia together with an increase in glucagon, thereby stimulating the utilization of non-carbohydrates to increase blood sugar.
A. Glycolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenesis
D. Glycogenolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
Which is not an enzyme used in gluconeogenesis?
A. Pyruvate carboxylase
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. PEP carboxykinase
D. Fructose-1,6-bisphophatase
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
What GSD involves deficiency of glycogen synthase?
A. GSD 0
B. GSD 1 - von Gierke's Disease
C. GSD 2 - Pompe's Disease
D. GSD 3 - Cori's Disease
A. GSD 0
Which is the precursor of all purine nucleotides?
A. Orotidine monophosphate (OMP)
C. Xanthosine monophosphate (XMP)
B. Inosine monophosphate (IMP)
D. Uridine monophosphate (UMP)
B. Inosine monophosphate (IMP)
Which is the precursor of all pyrimidine nucleotides?
A. Orotidine monophosphate (OMP)
C. Xanthosine monophosphate (XMP)
B. Inosine monophosphate (IMP)
D. Uridine monophosphate (UMP)
A. Orotidine monophosphate (OMP)
Which of the following pairs of amino acid and their derivative is CORRECT?
A. Tyrosine: Epinephrine
C. Glycine: Niacin
B. Tryptophan: GABA
D. Serine: nitric oxide
A. Tyrosine: Epinephrine
Which of the following pathways does not occur at all inside the mitochondrion, nor within the mitochondrial membranes?
A. Urea cycle
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Glycolysis
D. Beta-oxidation
C. Glycolysis
The Thalleioquin reaction is used to identify this alkaloid:
A. Caffeine
C. Atropine
B. Quinine
D. Morphine
B. Quinine
A pyridine-piperidine alkaloid used as a CNS stimulant and smoking deterrent under the brand name Bantron.
A. Arecoline
C. Scopolamine
B. Nicotine
D. Lobeline
D. Lobeline
Which of the following is not a liquid alkaloid?
A. Conine
C. Nicotine
B. Atropine
D. Sparteine
B. Atropine
A mixture of morphine and cocaine used as analgesic in terminally ill cancer patients.
A. Paregoric Elixir
C. Dover's Powder
B. Laudanum
D. Brompton's Cocktail
D. Brompton's Cocktail
The following are components of Compound Benzoin Tincture, EXCEPT:
A. Benzoin
B. Arecolin
C. Storax
D. Tolu Balsam
B. Arecolin
Which of the following are fixed oils used for intramuscular injection?
I. Sesame Oil
Il. Coconut Oil
IIl. Corn Oil
IV. Peanut Oil
A. I, II, III, IV
C. II, Ill, and IV
B. I, lI, and IV
D. I, lIl, and IV
D. I, lIl, and IV
The method of obtaining volatile oil that utilizes sharp tiny projection where a specimen can be rolled.
A. Ecuelle a piquer
C. Enfleurage
B. Enzymatic Action
D. Distillation
A. Ecuelle a piquer
The pathologic product of sperm whales used as a base for perfume.
A. Spermaceti
C. Musk
B. Ambergris
D. Civet
B. Ambergris
In the processing of cow's milk, the liguid separated from the coagulum is called:
A. Whey
B. Cheese
C. Buttermilk
D. Skim
A. Whey
Rutin and Hesperidin in combination is also known as:
A. Vitamin F
B. Vitamin P
C. Vitamin H
D. Vitamin U
B. Vitamin P
This enzyme is found in almonds, and it causes the hydrolysis of beta glucosides (i.e. Amygdalin hydrolyzed into glucose, benzaldehyde, and HCM.) It consists of a mixture of 2 enzymes: prunase and amygdalase.
A. Invertase
B. Myrosin
C. Emulsin
D. Maltase
C. Emulsin
Which of the following are TRUE for the phytochemical screening tests?
A. The Guignard Test is useful for detecting cyanogenic glycosides.
B. The Bomtrager Test is useful for detecting anthrones.
C. The Wilstatter-Cyanidin Test is useful for detecting cyanophore glycosides.
D. All of the above
A. The Guignard Test is useful for detecting cyanogenic glycosides.
The aglycone released from arbutin is:
A. Acrinylisothiocyanate
B. Allylisothiocyanate
C. Hydroquinone
D. Mandelonitrile
C. Hydroquinone
This is an antifungal produced from the pyrolysis of castor oil.
A. Azelaic acid
B. Undecylic acid
C. Undecylenic acid
D. None of the above
C. Undecylenic acid
Known as the deliberate addition of spurious material to a genuine portion with the intent to defraud.
A. Admixture
B. Sophistication
C. Substitution
D. Deterioration
B. Sophistication
In the perfumery industry, volatile oils are classified into tiers of notes. These note of volatile oils have low volatility and high tenacity. They are often labelled as "fixatives" because of their staying power.
A. Base Note
B. Middle Note
C. Intermediate Note
D. Top Note
A. Base Note
What is the correct sequence in the preparation of crude drugs?
A Collection -> Harvesting -> Drying -> Curing -> Packaging → Garbling
B. Collection -> Harvesting → Drying - Curing -> Garbling -> Packaging
C. Harvesting -> Collection -> Drying -> Curing -> Garbling -> Packaging
D. Harvesting -> Collection → Drying -> Curing → Packaging -> Garbling
B. Collection -> Harvesting → Drying → Curing -> Garbling -> Packaging
The following statements regarding isothiocyanate glycosides are TRUE:
I. Constituent of black mustard is sinalbin.
Il. White mustard is Sinapis alba.
III. Sinigrin + myrosin = acrinyl isothiocyanate
IV. Black mustard contains the more volatile isothiocyanate glycoside.
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. II, IV
D. I, III
C. II, IV
It was previously used as a poison and is derived from Tonka beans.
A. Dicoumarol
B. Coumarin
C. Clover
D. Vanilla
B. Coumarin
Sanguinaria canadensis
A. Purine
B. Isoquinoline
C. Steroidal
D. Indole
E. Imidazole
B. Isoquinoline
Rauwolfia serpentina
A. Purine
B. Isoquinoline
C. Steroidal
D. Indole
E. Imidazole
D. Indole
Cola nitida
A. Purine
B. Isoquinoline
C. Steroidal
D. Indole
E. Imidazole
A. Purine
Glandular trichomes
A. Lamiaceae
B. Pinaceae
C. Piperaceae
D. Rutaceae
E. Apiaceae
A. Lamiaceae
Vittae
A. Lamiaceae
B. Pinaceae
C. Piperaceae
D. Rutaceae
E. Apiaceae
E. Apiaceae
Modified parenchymal cells
A. Lamiaceae
B. Pinaceae
C. Piperaceae
D. Rutaceae
E. Apiaceae
C. Piperaceae
Cinnamomum camphora
A. Phenolic Ether V.O.
B. Alcohol V.O.
C. Aldehyde V.O.
D. Ketone V.O.
E. Ester V.O.
D. Ketone V.O.
Cinnamomum zeylanicum
A. Phenolic Ether V.O.
B. Alcohol V.O.
C. Aldehyde V.O.
D. Ketone V.O.
E. Ester V.O.
C. Aldehyde V.O.
Myristica fragrans
A. Phenolic Ether V.O.
B. Alcohol V.O.
C. Aldehyde V.O.
D. Ketone V.O.
E. Ester V.O.
A. Phenolic Ether V.O.
Coriandrum sativum
A. Phenolic Ether V.O.
B. Alcohol V.O.
C. Aldehyde V.O.
D. Ketone V.O.
E. Ester V.O.
B. Alcohol V.O.
Gaultheria procumbens
A. Phenolic Ether V.O.
B. Alcohol V.O.
C. Aldehyde V.O.
D. Ketone V.O.
E. Ester V.O.
E. Ester V.O.
Citrulus vulgaris
A. Amarillo
B. Balimbing
C. Dita
D. Kamias
E. Pakwan
E. Pakwan
Tagetes erecta
A. Amarillo
B. Balimbing
C. Dita
D. Kamias
E. Pakwan
A. Amarillo
Averrhoa bilimbi
A. Amarillo
B. Balimbing
C. Dita
D. Kamias
E. Pakwan
D. Kamias
Alstonia scholaris
A. Amarillo
B. Balimbing
C. Dita
D. Kamias
E. Pakwan
C. Dita
Averrhoa carambola
A. Amarillo
B. Balimbing
C. Dita
D. Kamias
E. Pakwan
B. Balimbing
Which of the following biomolecules is not a polymer?
a. Protein
b. Fats
c. Carbohydrate
d. Nucleic acid
b. Fats
ETC occurs in which part/organelle of the cell?
a. Cytosol
b. Nucleus
c. Ribosomes
d. Mitochondria
d. Mitochondria
Which of the following is the precursor of dopamine
a. Phenylalanine
b. Tyrosine
c. Serine
d. Arginine
b. Tyrosine
Which of the following stabilizes the primary structure?
a. Ionic interactions
b. Peptide bonds
c. Disulfide bonds
d. Two of the choices
b. Peptide bonds
This nonessential amino acid is used to shuttle end products of metabolism in the muscle to the liver for gluconeogenesis
a. Phenylalanine
b. Arginine
c. Alanine
d. Histidine
c. Alanine
What is the characteristic R group of tryptophan?
a. Thiol
b. Indole
c. Phenol
d. Guanidino
b. Indole
What is the characteristic R group of isoleucine?
a. Isobutyl
b. Sec-butyl
c. Isopropyl
d. Methyl
b. Sec-butyl
What is the characteristic R group of tyrosine?
a. Thiol
b. Thioether
c. Phenol
d. Guanidino
c. Phenol
Used in one of the first sequencing techniques for proteins, and was critical in the deduction of the insulin structure
a. Sanger reagent
b. Edman reagent
c. Cyanogen bromide
d. Aminopeptidase
b. Edman reagent
Which are the amidic amino acids?
a. Q and E
b. D and E
c. N and Q
d. D and N
c. N and Q
This variable can be plotted against enzyme velocity to yield a hyperbolic plot
a. pH
b. Enzyme
c. Substrate
d. Temperature
c. Substrate
This refers to any nonprotein portion of the holoenzyme
a. Coenzyme
b. Zymogen
c. Apoenzyme
d. Cofactor
a. Coenzyme
The enzyme with EC number 3.1.1.3 belongs to what class?
a. Transferase
b. Isomerase
c. Oxidoreductase
d. Hydrolase
d. Hydrolase
The following statements are true, except?
a. Cofactors are organic or metal ions required by certain enzymes to carry out catalysis
b. Many coenzymes are derived from vitamins
c. Coenzymes can either be organic or inorganic
d. None of the above
c. Coenzymes can either be organic or inorgani
These enzymes facilitate the removal of a certain functional group in a biochemical process
a. Lyase
b. Ligase
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Transferases
a. Lyase
These enzymes facilitate condensation reactions that connect carbon chains together
a. Lyase
b. Ligase
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Transferases
b. Ligase