IFR - Approaches 2

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160 Terms

1
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What does IAP stand for?

Instrument Approach Procedure

2
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What is the ICAO definition of an Instrument Approach Procedure?

A series of predetermined maneuvers by reference to flight instruments providing obstacle protection from the initial approach fix or defined arrival route to a point where landing can be completed, or to a point where holding or enroute clearance criteria apply.

3
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During an approach, how much does obstacle and terrain clearance reduce from departure phase?

From over 1000 feet down to as low as 200 feet.

4
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In Canada, which document governs the development of instrument procedures?

TP 308, Criteria for the Development of Instrument Procedures.

5
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What are the four basic segments of an instrument approach?

Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed.

6
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What are the three main types of Instrument Approach Procedures?

Precision Approach (PA), Non-Precision Approach (NPA), and Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV).

7
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What defines a Precision Approach (PA)?

An approach with lateral and vertical guidance aligned with the runway centerline.

8
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Which navigation systems are used for Precision Approaches?

ILS, MLS, and PAR.

9
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What defines a Non-Precision Approach (NPA)?

An approach with only lateral (course) guidance and no vertical guidance.

10
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Which navigation systems are used for Non-Precision Approaches?

LOC, VOR, NDB, RNAV (GNSS)

11
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What defines an Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV)?

An approach providing lateral guidance equivalent to a localizer and vertical guidance.

12
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Which navigation systems are used for APV approaches?

RNAV (GNSS)

13
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What is the required obstacle clearance in the Initial Segment?

1000 feet.

14
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What is the required obstacle clearance in the Intermediate Segment?

500 feet.

15
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What is the required obstacle clearance in the Final Segment?

200+ feet (300+ for circling).

16
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What is the obstacle clearance in the Missed Approach Segment?

Increases from final segment clearance back to 1000 feet.

17
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What is the purpose of the Initial Approach Segment?

To transition from the enroute phase to the intermediate approach segment.

18
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What marks entry into the Initial Approach Segment?

Crossing the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) or departing the enroute structure for approach.

19
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What is the maximum angle between initial and intermediate segments when the initial segment is a course?

120 degrees.

20
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If the turn required exceeds 90 degrees, what is charted?

A lead radial or bearing indicating 2 NM of lead.

21
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What is the minimum arc radius for low altitude procedures?

7 NM.

22
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How wide is the obstacle clearance area on the Initial Segment?

6 NM either side of the course/arc.

23
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How much clearance is provided in the primary area of the Initial Segment?

1000 feet.

24
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What is the descent gradient on the Initial Segment?

Optimum 250 feet per NM, maximum 500 feet per NM.

25
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What extra clearance is provided for a procedure turn?

Extra clearance on the procedure turn side of the approach course.

26
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What is a procedure turn used for?

To establish the aircraft on the intermediate segment when straight-in clearance is not possible.

27
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How many basic variations of a procedure turn exist?

Five.

28
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What must a pilot do before descending on a procedure turn?

Cross the fix and descend to the procedure turn altitude unless otherwise specified.

29
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What does “No PT” mean on an approach plate?

No procedure turns are permitted; straight-in approach authorized.

30
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What connects the initial and final approach segments?

The Intermediate Approach Segment.

31
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When does the Intermediate Segment begin?

After completing a procedure turn or crossing the Intermediate Fix (IF).

32
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What is the purpose of the Intermediate Segment?

To position the aircraft for final descent alignment.

33
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What is the optimum descent gradient on the Intermediate Segment?

150 feet per NM.

34
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What is the maximum descent gradient on the Intermediate Segment?

318 feet per NM (3 degrees).

35
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What obstacle clearance is provided in the Intermediate Segment?

500 feet in the primary area.

36
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What is the maximum alignment difference between intermediate and final segments?

30 degrees.

37
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How long are intermediate segments typically for Non-Precision Approaches?

5 NM.

38
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How long are intermediate segments typically for Precision Approaches?

2+ NM.

39
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Where does the Final Approach Segment begin for NPAs?

At the Final Approach Fix (FAF) or Final Approach Course Fix (FACF).

40
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Where does the Final Approach Segment begin for PAs?

At glideslope interception.

41
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Where does the Final Approach Segment end for NPAs?

At the Missed Approach Point (MAP).

42
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Where does the Final Approach Segment end for PAs?

At the Decision Height (DH).

43
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What are stepdown fixes?

Points in a Non-Precision Approach where obstacle clearance changes after passage.

44
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Where does the Missed Approach Segment begin in a PA or APV?

At the Decision Height (DH).

45
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Where does the Missed Approach Segment begin in an NPA?

At the Missed Approach Point (MAP).

46
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When must a missed approach be executed?

When required visual reference is not obtained at the DH or MAP.

47
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If a landing is rejected below DH or MDA, what happens?

The aircraft may be below the obstacle clearance surface.

48
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When can the pilot transition to visual flight?

Once the required visual reference is established at or after DH/MAP.

49
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What options does a pilot have after obtaining visual reference at DH/MAP?

Transition to a straight-in landing or circle to land on another runway.

50
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What must pilots continue doing after going visual?

Maintain instrument scan while integrating outside visual cues.

51
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Why must instrument scanning continue after going visual?

To prevent reliance on misleading visual cues that could cause accidents.

52
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What is the optimum reaction time available from 200 ft DH at 130 knots?

About 18 seconds, with 4 seconds used for orientation.

53
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What are the three categories of instrument approach lighting hazards?

Obscured conditions, low visibility, and variable lighting.

54
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How much obstacle clearance is provided in circling minima?

300 feet.

55
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When can you descend below circling minimums?

When you have sufficient visual reference to make a normal descent and landing.

56
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If you lose sight of the runway during circling, what must you do?

Initiate a missed approach using the published procedure for the approach flown.

57
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What determines the size of the Visual Maneuvering Area?

Aircraft category based on IAS.

58
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Within the Visual Maneuvering Area, how much obstacle clearance is provided?

300 feet.

59
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What should be done when circling at night?

Use visual aids (PAPI/VASIS), plan carefully, monitor altitude and speed.

60
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When must pilots report at uncontrolled aerodromes during approach?

5 minutes before EAT, at procedure turn fix, passing FAF, circling, final, and during missed approach.

61
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At a controlled aerodrome, what must be included in the initial tower call?

The approach clearance (e.g., “Waterloo Tower, GOLP, Cleared ILS 26”).

62
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How is the touchdown zone defined?

The first third of the runway or 3000 feet, whichever is less.

63
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What governs whether approaches may be conducted or not?

Runway Visual Range (RVR).

64
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What governs landings?

RVR.

65
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What is the reference point for the 100-mile safe altitude on an approach plate?

The same point as the MSA 25 NM.

66
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What is true about DME arcs?

They can be joined at any point along the depicted arc and provide 1000 ft of obstacle clearance.

67
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What are the main categories of circling approaches based on?

Indicated Airspeed (IAS).

68
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When is an approach designated as circling?

When the final approach track is misaligned by 30° or more from the runway centerline.

69
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What is an NDB Approach?

A Non-Precision Approach where final track guidance is provided by a bearing to/from an NDB.

70
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What identifies station passage on an NDB approach?

When the ADF bearing pointer stabilizes at the wingtip position (90°).

71
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How accurate are NDB approaches compared to others?

Least accurate; usually have the highest minimums.

72
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When may descent on final begin in an NDB approach?

When the aircraft is within 5° of the published track.

73
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What are the two forms of NDB procedures?

Beacon on field and beacon off field.

74
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What is an NDB approach?

A non-precision approach using a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB) for lateral guidance.

75
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When is the final approach phase of an NDB approach considered critical?

When passing the beacon final (FAF).

76
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During the outbound leg of an NDB approach, what should pilots do?

Make small heading corrections due to tracking difficulty.

77
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What checklist should be completed before the final descent in an NDB approach?

The final approach checklist.

78
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When is a missed approach mandatory in an NDB approach?

When the time to the MAP has elapsed without visual reference, a safe landing is not possible, ATC instructs a go-around, or track guidance is lost (NDB off air).

79
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For an inbound NDB approach with the beacon on the field, what is true about the FAF?

There is no FAF; timing outbound is used to determine when to turn inbound.

80
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Why is the outbound leg extended during an NDB on-field approach?

To ensure sufficient time to descend when inbound.

81
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When should the final approach checklist be completed during an NDB on-field approach?

When completing the procedure turn.

82
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What provides final approach track guidance in a VOR approach?

A radial to or from a VOR.

83
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Are VOR approaches precision or non-precision?

Non-precision.

84
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How do VOR minima compare to other non-precision approaches?

Lower than NDB but higher than LOC or RNAV.

85
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What is the most common type of VOR approach?

VOR/DME.

86
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What does the TO/FROM flag indicate in a VOR approach?

Whether the aircraft is flying to or from the VOR.

87
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What defines the FAF and MAP in a VOR/DME approach?

The VOR itself and the DME distance.

88
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How accurately must the aircraft track before descent on final?

Within ±5° (half-scale deflection).

89
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What does an ILS consist of?

A localizer and glideslope aligned with the runway.

90
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What guidance does the localizer provide?

Lateral guidance, about 2.5° either side of centerline.

91
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What guidance does the glideslope provide?

Vertical guidance, approximately 0.7° either side of the glide path.

92
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Is ILS a precision or non-precision approach?

Precision.

93
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What are the three categories of ILS approaches?

CAT I, CAT II, CAT III.

94
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What is the most common ILS category?

CAT I.

95
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What equipment and training are required for CAT I?

No special aircraft or crew certification beyond standard ILS capability.

96
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What determines the DH for CAT I ILS?

Barometric altimeter indications.

97
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What are the basic minima for CAT I ILS?

200 ft above TDZE and ½ SM or RVR 2600.

98
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What additional requirements apply to CAT II ILS?

Specific company, crew, aircraft, and airport authorization from Transport Canada.

99
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What determines the DH for CAT II ILS?

Radio altimeter indications.

100
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What are the basic minima for CAT II ILS?

100 ft above TDZE and RVR 1200.