BME 115 FINAL & Conservation of Charge

What are some extensive properties?

Mass

Moles

Momentum

Volume

Charge

Energy

Entropy

What are some intensive properties?

Mass/mole fraction

Molecular weight

Temperature

Pressure

Density

Velocity

Specific volume

Specific energy

Humidity

Boiling/melting point

Which of the following is an extensive quantity?

A) molar fraction

B) pressure

C) Velocity

D) Mechanical Energy

E) Density

D

What are some scalar quantities?

Mass

Length

Time

Temperature

Pressure

Density

Energy

Power

Charge

What are some vector quantities?

Force

Velocity

Acceleration

Momentum

Which quantities are conserved?

Total mass

Mass of individual elements

Moles of individual elements

Total energy

Net charge

Linear/angular momentum

What descriptors apply to a batch reactor?

closed, dynamic

You have a system with 6 streams and 3 components, How many independent equations of mass conservation can you write?

3

What are the assumptions for the continuity equation?

Open, non-reacting, steady-state

What's the difference between an open, closed, and isolated system?

Open system exchanges an extensive property with its surroundings through bulk mass transfer.

Closed system exchanges an extensive property with its surroundings through other means (e.g. heat, gravity).

Isolated system does not exchange an extensive property by any means.

What's the difference between a reacting and non-reacting system?

Reacting system has at least one biochemical/chemical reaction taking place.

Non-reacting system has no reactions taking place.

What are the potential fields?

Gravitational

Electromagnetic

What does conservative mean in the context of potential fields?

Potential energy is a state function and is independent of path, so only start and endpoints matter.

What are the sign conventions for heat and work?

Q>0: energy from surroundings to system

W>0: work done by surroundings on system

What's the difference between sensible heat and latent heat?

Sensible heat is the heat transferred to raise or lower the temperature of a material.

Latent heat is the specific enthalpy change associated with the transition of a substance from one phase to another.

How is the specific heat capacity affected by temperature for different phases?

Heat capacity is a function of temperature for gases, but does not depend on temperature for solids and liquids.

What are the properties of heat of reaction?

Single reaction

Constant T and p

Stoichiometric amounts

Complete conversion

What's the difference between an endothermic and exothermic reaction?

Endothermic reaction requires more energy to break the bonds of the reactants than is released when the bonds of the products are formed; positive heat of reaction.

Exothermic reaction requires less energy to break the bonds of the reactants than is released when the bonds of the products are formed; negative heat of reaction.

You have two units, two components, and 5 streams. How many independent equations of mass conservation can you write?

3

When does systole conventionally begin?

closing of the 2 atrioventricular valves

What is the mechanism that controls the opening of the aortic valve?

pressure difference between ventricle and aorta

Which one of the following statements is correct for a chemical reaction?

A. the rate of heat of reaction is proportional to the fractional conversion

B. Increasing the excess of non limiting reactants has no effect on the energy balance

C. T= 37C and p=1 atm are the so called "std conditions"

D. chemical reactions can only occur if all the reactants are in a gas phase

A. the rate of heat of reaction is proportional to the fractional conversion

What is the relationship between electric charge and electric current?

Current is the rate of electrical charge

What do you observe if you put two equal electric charges close to each other?

a repulsive force between the two charges

What physical law describes the interaction between the two electric charges?

Coulomb's Law

What is the name of the force per unit charge experienced by a charge?

Electric Field

Which of the following is conserved in a system?

A. positive charge

B. Negative Charge

C. Net Charge

D. Electrical Charge

C. net charge

Which device is based on the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical energy?

A hub dynamo

Which device is capable of producing a voltage gain?

battery

Equation for finding equivalent resistance for resistors in parallel

(1/Rt) = (1/R1) + (1/R2) + (1/R3) + ...

Which change in cell membrane potential initiates the contraction of the cardiac muscle?

depolarization

How many leads do you need to determine the mean depolarization (vector of the heart)?

2

Equation for finding equivalent resistance for resistors in series

R = R1 + R2 + R3 + ...

Consider a dynamic system where you want to find an analytical solution to the problem of conservation of energy. Which one of the following assumptions is necessary for you to be able to solve the problem analytically?

A. Cp = Cv for every species involved

B. The system needs to be well mixed (i.e. Tsys = Tout)

C. No species undergoes a change of phase.

D. The system is steady state.

B. The system needs to be well mixed (i.e. Tsys = Tout)

Is the following statement correct? In an exothermic process, feeding the reactants in stoichiometric proportions ensures the largest increase in temperature.

YES, it's correct.

What is the correct sequence of the cardiac cycle?

Atrio-ventricular filling, isovolumic contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumic relaxation

Which one of the following associations is correct?

A. Change in Temperature--->Sensible Heat

B. Change in internal energy--->Latent Heat

C. Change in Pressure--->Sensible Heat

D. Change in Phase--->Heat of Reaction

A. Change in Temperature--> Sensible Heat

What are the assumptions for a continuous stirred-tank reactor (CSTR)?

Open, steady-state

What are the assumptions for a BATCH reactor?

Closed, dynamic

What are the dimensions of mass flow rate?

mass/time

What are possible units of volumetric flow rate?

m^3/s

Which one of the following quantities is conserved?

A. Total Moles

B. Mass of Individual Species

C. Mass of Individual Elements

D. Moles of Individual species

C. Mass of Individual Elements

Which one of the following terms will not appear in a conservation equation?

A. GEN

B. ACC

C. IN

D. OUT

A. GEN

Which kind of quantity (i.e. physical variables) can we write a conservation/accounting equation for

extensive quantities

Which of the following descriptors define a CSTR?

Open, perfectly-stirred, steady-state

The mass conservation equation is also known as

Continuity equation

Which of the following quantities is conserved in a reactive system?

A. Total Moles

B. Mass of Individual Species

C. Moles of individual elements

D. Moles of Individual species

C

How many mass accounting equations can be written for a system with 4 compounds

4

How many linearly independent equations can be written to balance a stoichiometric equation?

As many as the elements involved

What condition(s) must be true to find only products in the output stream of a chemical reactor?

A. partial conversion

B. complete conversion and reactants in stoichiometric proportions

C. Complete conversion

D. reactants in stoichiometric proportions

B. Complete conversion and reactants in stoichiometric proportions

What is the stoichiometric coefficient of ethanol in the reaction of fermentation of glucose?

C6H12O6 → 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO

+2

Which of the following statements is true for dynamic systems?

A. The accumulation term in the accounting equation is equal to zero

B. The variables inside the system may vary over time.

C. They must be described using accounting equations, not conservations equations

D. The is generation and consumption of some species

B. The variables inside the system may vary over time.

Often, for dynamic systems it is convenient to use the accounting equation in which form:

integral form

What is snorzin?

a fictitious protein

Which type of energy is related to the position of the system in a potential field?

potential energy

What does it mean that a potential field (gravitational, electromagnetic) is conservative?

The difference in potential energy between 2 points in the field does not depend on the path chosen from one point to the other

What are the dimensions of the heat transfer coefficient, h?

[M] [t]^(-3) [T]^-1

Which of the following can be associated with the movement of bulk material across a system boundary?

A. flow work

B. non flow work

C. Shaft Work

D. Expansion work

A. flow work

How can you calculate the standard heat of reaction?

as a combination of heats of formation

What conditions are required to measure standard heat of formation of a chemical species?

a reaction to form 1 mole of the species from constituent elements, at std T and p.

Which condition(s) are required to measure the standard heat of reaction?

a single reaction,

standard t and p,

reactants in stoichiometric proportions,

complete conversion

Which of the following is NOT a means to transfer energy between an open system and its surroundings?

A. Heat

B. Bulk Mass Transfer

C. Work

D. Potential Energy

potential energy

In a chemical reaction, what is the sign of the reaction rate R

Always positive

What condition(s) must be true to find the limiting reactant in the output stream of a chemical reactor?

A. partial conversion

B. complete conversion and reactants in nonstoichiometric proportions

C. partial conversion and reactants in stoichiometric proportions

D. partial conversion and reactants in nonstoichiometric proportions

A. partial conversion

What is the most convenient formulation of the accounting equations for a CSTR?

Differential

Which of the following statements about the human heart is correct?

A. it has two outlets for blood

B. Systolic ejection period ends with the opening of the aortic valve

C. Diastole is the portion of heartbeat during which chamber filling takes place

D. During isovolumic relaxation period all the cardiac valves are closed

E. End-systolic ventricular volume is smaller than end-diastolic ventricular volume

A. it has two outlets for blood

C. Diastole is the portion of heartbeat during which chamber filling takes place

D. During isovolumic relaxation period all the cardiac valves are closed

E. End-systolic ventricular volume is smaller than end-diastolic ventricular volume

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. heat of formation of CO2 is zero

B. Heat of combustion of O2 is zero

C. Heat of formation of H2 is zero

D. Heat of combustion of H2O is zero

E. Heat of formation of C is the same as the heat of combustion of C.

B. Heat of combustion of O2 is zero

C. Heat of formation of H2 is zero

D. Heat of combustion of H2O is zero

Utilitarianism

Consequentialism; greatest good for the greatest number; attainment of well being, avoidance of pain

Kantianism

Non-consequentialism; human beings are uniquely precious; not okay to experiment on each other

What are the two moral norms?

Beneficience: provision of benefits

Nonmaleficence: avoidance of doing harm

Criteria for death

State of irreversible coma

No breathing movements when respirator is turned off

No reflexes

Flat EEG for at least 24 hours

What's the difference between active and passive euthanasia?

Active euthanasia is an act of commission while passive euthanasia is an act of omission

What is human experimentation?

When the clinical situation of the individual is consciously manipulated to gather information regarding the capability of drugs and devices. A therapeutic experiment is one that may have direct benefit for the patient.

What do the modern terms practice and research distinguish?

Practice is therapeutic while research is nontherapeutic.

What is non-validated practice?

The purpose is to benefit the patient while also emphasizing that it has not been shown to be safe and efficacious.

What is informed consent?

An attempt to preserve the rights of individuals by giving them the opportunity for self-determination.

Convergence guidelines

1. Prior laboratory research on animals

2. Tests will provide scientific value

3. Personnel have relevant scientific expertise

4. All risks and benefits are assessed

5. Informed and voluntary consent

6. Subjects can back out at any time

What is CDRH?

Center for Devices and Radiological Health; FDA program center responsible for ensuring the safety and effectiveness of medical devices.

What is ODE?

Office of Device Evaluation; CDRH office that advises the CDRH director on all premarket notification 510(k) submissions, premarket approvals (PMAs), device classifications, and investigational device exemptions (IDEs). Everyone who develops or markets a medical device will interact with the office many times throughout development.

FDA device definition

Anything (instrument, apparatus, etc.) used in the diagnosis of disease or other conditions, or in the cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of a disease.

Premarket approval (PMA)

Marketing approach for high risk (Class III) devices; expensive, long process; approved PMA is like a private license to market

Investigational Device Exemption (IDE)

Regulatory mechanism that permits manufacturers to receive an exemption for those devices solely intended for investigational use on humans

Product Development Protocol (PDP)

Mechanism that allows a sponsor to come to an early agreement with the FDA as to what steps are necessary to demonstrate safety and effectiveness of new device

510(k) Notification

Manufacturers must give the FDA 90 days notice before introducing a device to the U.S. market through submission of this. Used to demonstrate that the medical device is or is not substantially equivalent to a legally marketed device.

Institutional Review Board (IRB)

When clinical research involves a significant risk device, it cannot begin until both the protocol and informed consent form have been submitted to them.

Describe 3rd generation sequencing techniques

start from a single molecule of DNA;

uses nanopore technology: nucleotides obstruct the nanochannel in different ways, which allows identification of the DNA sequence;

complete human genome sequenced in a few hours for less than 1,000 USD.

Describe 2nd generation sequencing techniques

developed since 2005;

used special chain-terminating nucleotides marked with different fluorescent colors;

musch faster and cheaper

Describe the Sanger, or first generation, sequencing

first developed in the late 1970s;

requires lots of genetic material, labor, and time;

used to sequence the complete genome in 2000

Uses of PCR

cloning "short" DNA fragments;

detection of invading microorganisms at early stages of infection;

tracking epidemics;

testing food products for harmful microbes;

Forensic medicine

What is Gel Electrophoresis

Technique to separate DNA fragments based on their length; can be used for genetic identification

Why do we need two primers?

You need one primer to sequence the lower strand (5' to 3') and one to sequence the upper strand (3' to 5')

What is DNA

Carrier of genetic information, comprised of two strands wound into a helix; found in chromosomes; hydrogen bonds between each strand and covalent bonds within each strand or chain.

What is PCR

Polymerase Chain Reaction: a fast, effective, and inexpensive way to amplify selected DNA sequences

What are the steps for PCR

1. DNA denaturing (by heating)

2. Initiation by a primer (short nucleotide sequences)

3. Sequence duplication by DNA polymerase

What is the Hawthorn effect?

the alteration of behavior by the subjects of a study due to their awareness of being observed

Examples of wearable medical devices

blood glucose monitor; blood pressure monitor; heart rate or ECG monitor; peripheral capillary oxygen saturation (SpO2) monitor; EEG monitor, accelerometers; skin temperature and conductance monitor

What are wearable devices

Devices that can be worn or mated with human skin to continuously and closely monitor an individual's activities, without interrupting or limiting the user's motion

Why is there a need for wearable sensors?

medical data should be collected in the real world and not the lab;

medical data should be collected more frequently;

Cost of healthcare should be reduced without affecting quality;

Access to healthcare should be more equal

Can any wearable sensor be a medical device?

No; It is imperative for medical devices to be extremely accurate and not simply "infotainment"

Types of sensors

gyroscope, accelerometer, UV light, photo-sensitive dye, Galvanic Skin Response (measures electrical conductance of skin)