FIA SU 4: Airports, Airspace, and ATC

A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates

1,000 feet of runway remaining.

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic

What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?

That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

Denotes intersecting runways

What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?

Holds aircraft short of the runway.

What is the purpose of the runway hold position sign?

Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway

What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?

Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.

An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity?

5 clicks

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

The "ILS critical area boundary" sign identifies

the edge of the ILS critical area

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

Identifies direction to take-off runways

What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?

Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position markings?

150

The "No Entry" sign identifies

paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

What does a destination sign identify?

Direction to takeoff runways.

What is the purpose of the hold position markings on a holding bay?

Hold aircraft on the holding bay when there is an operational need

The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to

highlight an approaching runway holding position marking

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?

Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

outward, upward, and around each tip

What effect would a crosswind of 5 knots or less have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aircraft that had just taken off?

The upwind vortex would tend to remain on the runway longer than the downward vortex

Due to the effect of wake turbulence, what minimum separation does ATC provide for a small aircraft landing behind a heavy jet?

6 miles

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by

being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

Beyond the jet's touchdown point.

Which statement is true regarding wingtip vortices?

Vortices generated by helicopters in forward flight are similar to those generated by fixed wing aircraft

Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly

above the flight path of the large aircraft

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of...

10 miles

When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on

122.9 MHz

The UNICOM frequency at airports with a control tower is

122.95

A military airfield can be identified by

a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

A slightly below glidepath indication on a 2-bar VASI glidepath is indicated by

Two red lights over two more red lights

Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white

When on the upper glidepath of a 3-bar VASI what would be the colors of the lights?

The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red

The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold?

4 NM

A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by

one white light and three red lights

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

Chart Supplement

You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?"

In the Chart Supplements U.S.

To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should

consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has...

received prior authorization from the controlling agency

A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions established

from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S.

A military operations area (MOA) is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of

Separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic

When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot

should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by

IR or VR and a four digit number

Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is

permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity

What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?

Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training

Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including,

the base of the overlying controlled airspace

Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is

18,000 feet MSL

When a control tower located on an airport within class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

18,000 feet MSL

The vertical limit of Class D airspace will normally be designated

up to, and including 2,500 feet AGL

Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?

2,500 feet.

What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport?

The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Class A

A turbine-powered or large airplane is required to enter an airport traffic pattern at an altitude of at least

1,500 feet AGL

An airport without a control tower lies within the controlled airspace of an airport with an operating tower. According to regulations, two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landing clearance at

the tower-controlled airport only, as well as to fly through the area.

What minimum pilot certification will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace?

Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate logbook endorsement

Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace?

Solo student pilots are authorized to fly in Class B airspace if they meet certain requirements.

All operations within Class C airspace must be in

an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

The minimum visibility for VFR flight in Class E airspace increases from 3 to 5 SM beginning at an altitude of

10,000 feet MSL

Which equipment is required when operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?

Two-way radio communications, a transponder with encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out equipment.

To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must

contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N121HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace?

You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance

What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way communications, a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability, and ADS-B Out equipment

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is...

2,000 feet

When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?

3 SM visibility and clear of clouds

While in Class G airspace in VFR conditions, what minimum distance from clouds should be maintained when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL, and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?

1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal.

An airplane may be operated in uncontrolled airspace at night below 1,200 feet above the surface under the following conditions:

Less than 3 miles but more than 1 mile visibility in an airport traffic pattern and within one-half mile of the runway

While in Class G airspace under day VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and less than 10,000 feet MSL?

1 SM

While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?

5 SM

Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility?

5 SM

No person may operate an airplane within Class D and E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR unless the

airplane is equipped for instrument flight

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?

Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

When operating an airplane within Class D airspace under special VFR, the flight visibility is required to be at least

1 SM

Regulations stipulate that, at an airport located within Class E airspace and at which ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings of airplanes under special VFR are

authorized if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM

What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements at an airport in Class G airspace when conducting takeoffs and landings at night?

1 SM visibility and clear of cloud if remaining within 1/2 mile of the airport

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, which airspace requires the appropriate Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment installed?

Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport

If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

Which transponder code should the pilot of a civilian aircraft never use?

7777

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

7500, 7600, 7700

What is the appropriate transponder code in response to lost communications?

7600

In the event of unlawful interference or hijacking, which transponder code should you input immediately?

7500

The transponder should be cycled to 7700 in the event of

an emergency

What is the hijack code?

7500

Most midair collision accidents occur during

clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids

Which technique should a learner be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to

avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.

ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock," this advisory is relative to your

ground track

Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within

10 miles of any airport

What is an effective way to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic pattern?

Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area.

How long will a Flight Service Station hold a VFR flight plan past the proposed departure time?

1 hour

How much time do you have to close a VFR flight plan before search and rescue procedures are initiated?

One-half hour after your ETA

What equipment code would you enter in item 10 of an ICAO flight plan for an aircraft with a standard IFR package including a VHF radio, VOR, and ILS receiver; an IFR-approved GPS; and a mode C transponder?

SG/C

When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in

NOTAM (D) distribution

When information is disseminated for a navigational facility, it will be located in

NOTAM (D) distribution

When information is disseminated for a temporary flight restriction (TFR), it will be located in

FDC NOTAMs, TFR NOTAMs, and the FAA Graphic TFR web page.