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Define dna damage
a physical abnormality in dna- can block transcription and hence translocation.
What is a consequence of dna damage in frequently dividing cells
Can give rise to mutations which can allow cells to proliferate without control/evade apoptosis- cause of cancer
What is a consequence of dna damage in infrequently dividing cells
Accumulates over time and contributes to aging
Name the 6 common dna repair mechanisms
1. Mismatch. 2. direct. 3. base excision. 4. nucleotide excision. 5. homologous recombination. 6. non-homologous end joining
Outline the 3 steps in mismatch repair technique
1. recognise mismatched bases by detecting dna distortions.
2. Determine which base is the correct one.
3. Excise incorrect base and repair
Outline step 1 in mismatch repair in E. coli
1. during dna replication, MutS recognises and binds to mismatches
Outline step 2 in mismatch repair in E. coli
2. MutH recognises the newly synthesised daughter strand by identifying hemi-methylated CATG sites and nicks the DNA
Outline step 3 in mismatch repair in E. coli
3. MutL recruits a helicase, the entire MuSHL comples moves along the dna, separating the dna strand to be removed. The segment of this strand including the incorrect nt is degraded by exonuclease. Gap is filled by polymerase and sealed by ligase.
Name the three mismatch repair proteins
MutS, MutH and MutL
Name four ways that bases can be damaged
Oxidation, deamination, alkylation and hydrolysis
What is the name of the non-human direct reversal protein
Photolyases
What is the name of the human direct reversal protein + give example
Alkyl transferase. E.g. MGMT
How does MGMT work
irreversible transfers the errant methyl group onto itself and is subsequently degraded
What type of damage is base-excision repair used for
lesions that do not distort the double helix
What proteins initiate base-excision repair
DNA glycoslyases
Outline step 1 of base-excision repair
1. Each dna glycoslyase recognises and removes a specific type of damaged base
Outline step 2 of base-excision repair
AP endonuclease cleaves the phosphodiester bond on the 5' side of the AP site
Outline step 3 of base-excision repair
AP endonuclease removes the deoxyribose sugar
What are the two forms of excision repair
Short and long patch
What polymerase performs short-patch repair
DNA polymerase beta
What polymerase performs long-patch repair
DNA polymerase delta or epsilon
What type of dna damage is nucleotide-excision repair used for
Bulky lesions that distort the double helix, including pyrimidine dimers
What are the two sub-pathways of NER
I. Global genomic NER and II. Transcription couples NER
Outline the first step of GG-NER
damage sensing proteins constantly scan the genome and recognise distortion in the dna helix
Outline the first step in TC-NER
Inititated when dna damage causes rna pol to stall at the bulky lesion
Outline step 2 of NER
Assembly of multi-protein complex at site, including helicase and CCB protein to stabilise the single strands
Outline step 3 of NER
On affected strand, dna around the lesion is excised by cleaving the sugar-phosphate backbone
Outline step 4 of NER
dna Pol fills the gap using undamaged strand as template and ligase seals the backbone.
Name the human disease caused by mutation in GG-NER
Xeroderma pigmentosum
Name the human disease caused by mutation in TC-NER
Cockayne syndrome
What type of dna damage is homologous recombination used for
DS breaks in actively dividing cells
What type of dna damage is non-homologous end joining used for
DS break in inactive cells
Which of the two forms of DS break repair systems is usually error prone
Non-homologous end joining
When can homologous recombination occur
Only during S phase when dna is replicating to sister chromatid can be used
Briefly outline the steps in homologous recombination
Resection, formation of nucleoprotein filament, strand invasion, dna synthesis from free 3' end of invading strand, separation from template and re-annea with original strand.
Outline the steps in non-homologous end-joining
1. Recognising dna damage. 2. binding of broken ends by KU20 + 80. 3. trimming the ends to get blunt 5'P and 3'OH. 4. Ligation by DNA ligase IV
What us a transition substitution
Purine replaced by a purine
what is a transversion substitution
Purine replaced by a pyrimidine
What two bases are purines
A + G
What two bases arep yrimidines
T + C
What is a forward mutation
Mutation that alters wild type
What is a reverse mutation
Changes mutant back to WT
What is a suppressor mutation
A genetic change that hides or suppresses the effect of another mutation
What is depurination
Loss of purine base from nucleotide. Results when covalent bond connecting purine to 1' carbon atom of deoxyribose sugar breaks, producing apurinic site (A-P)
How can an apurinic site lead to transversion mutation
Apurinic site cannot provide a template, nt with incorrect base will be incorporated into the new strand, at the next round the incorrect base will be used as a template leading to a permanent mutation.
What mutagens can induce an A-P site
radiation, hydroxyl radicals, enzymatic activity, dna adducts
Define mycotoxin
Toxic compounds that are naturally produced by certain types of moulds that grow on cereals, dried fruits and nuts.
How does aflatoxin B1 promote liver cancer
Promotes A-P site formation that forms DNA adducts
What is deamination
Loss of amino group (NH2) from a base
What is the dominant mutation of aflatoxin b1
G > T
What is the dominant mutation caused by UV radiation
C > T
What is the aetiology of cancer type signature 1
Endogenous mutational process initiated by spontaneous deamination of 5-methylcytosine
What is the aetiology of cancer type signature 7
Due to UV light exposure, large numbers of CC>TT mutations
What occurs to the epigenome during embryogenesis
A global wave of dnamethylation that increases H3K27 and H3K4
What gene is a mutation found in that causes obesity and yellow coat colour in mice
agouti
How does a mutated agouti gene cause yellow coat colour
Agouti encodes paracrine signalling molecule that promotes follicular melanotytes to produce yellow phaeomelanin rather than black
At what number of cells in an embryo do cells choose one X to remain on
1000 cell stage
What inactivates X
XIST and X-chromosome-encoded IncRNA. XIST coats X chr leading to heterochromatin spreading and dna hypermethylation
What is genomic imprinting
When two copies of a gene are inherited (maternal and paternal) only one is expressed, the non-expressed one is imprinted. It is epigenetic because it is a heritable change of gene expression not in the dna sequence.
How many imprinted genes have been identified in the human genome
70
What body functions can imprinted genes have an effect on
Growth regulation, brain function, behaviour
angleman syndrome symptoms
Severe retardation, microcephaly, lack of spech
What causes angelman syndrome
Deletion of maternal 15q11-a13 causing no maternal UBE3A
Symptoms of Prader syndrome
Mild mental retardation, obseity, short stature.
What causes Prader-Willi syndrome
Deletion of paternal 15q11-q13 causing decreased snoRNA
Symptoms of Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
Embryonic and placental overgrowth, predisposition to childhood tumours
What causes Beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
genetic and epigenetic changes in a regions of 1 megabase on chr11p
what is the first molecular type of beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
Gain of methylation at ICR1- controlling H19 non-coding rna expression
what is the second molecular type of beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
loss of methylation at ICR2 controlling KCNQ11OT1 non-coding rna expression
what is the third molecular type of beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
Paternal uniparental disomy
what is the fourth molecular type of beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
CDKN1C mutations
what is the fifth molecular type of beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
Chromosomal rearrangements
IGF2 and CDKN1C- which is paternal and maternal
IGF2 is normally on paternal chromsomes and CDKN1C is maternally expressed.
What gene variant is obesity in humans associated with
FTO gene
What epigenetic biomarker can be used to determine gestational age
DNA methylation
What happens to dna methylation as we age
Progressive methylation loss
What epigenetic marker does cancer normally show
global hypomethylation and focal hypermethylation of CpG islands
What is a CpG island
In humans, genes that have GC rich areas of DNA in promoter regions
What does methylation of C residues in CpG islands cause
Gene silencing/repression
What is DNMT1 responsible for
The maintenance of established patterns of dna methylation- follows the replication fork adding methylation marks to newly synthesised dna
What is DNMT3a and b responsible for
Mediate establishment of new or de novo dna methylation patterns
What enzyme mediates active demethylation
Ten-eleven translocation (TET 1,2 and 3)
How does passive DNA demethylation occur (TET-independent demethylation)
Inhibiting maintenance DNMT1 during division
What is an epigenetic mutation
Inherited defects that have an effect through epigenetic mechanisms
What is an imprinting disorder
can result from abnormal methylation of key genes in growth and development
What mode of inheritance is fragile X
x-linked dominant
What symptoms does fragile x cause
Intellectual disability, behavioural and learning challenges, physical characteristics
What is the most common cause of fragile x syndrome
Expansion of CGG triplet repeat region in 5'UTR of FMR1 gene which leads to silencing of the gene
What is Rett syndrome
Neurological disorder of the brain grey matter leading to deceleraton of the head growth and small hands, mostly affects females
What is the main cause of rett syndrome
mutations in MECP2 gene on X chromosome
What is epigenetics
Factors that cause stable and heritable, yet reversible, changes in the way genes are expressed without changing their original dna sequence.
What are two mechanisms of epigenetic regulation
DNA methylation and histone modification
What is the histone code hypothesis
Modifications of the histone tails act as epigenetic marks that control the expression of chromosomal regions. The marks are heritable , they act sequentially to form the histone code.
What is the nucleosome comprised of
Histone octamer- H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 (2 units of each)
What is chromatin composed of
DNA and histones
What is the name of condensed chromatin
Heterochromatin
What is the name of extended chromatin
Euchromatin
What charge are histone proteins and why
Positive due to arginine and lysine aa's.
Is acetylated chromatin transcriptionally active or repressed
Active- in extended form
How does acetylation promote transcription
Acetylation of histone tails neutralises their positive charge and releases the negatively charged dna