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What is the primary purpose of mechanical ventilation? A. Cure respiratory disease B. Replace kidney function C. Support oxygenation and ventilation D. Eliminate need for oxygen therapy
C
(SATA) Which are indications for mechanical ventilation? (Select all that apply) A. PaO₂ < 60 despite oxygen therapy B. PaCO₂ 30 mmHg C. Decreased level of consciousness D. Severe metabolic alkalosis E. Airway obstruction
A,C,E
A patient has PaCO₂ of 55 mmHg and pH 7.30. This indicates: A. Hypoxemic respiratory failure B. Hypercapnic respiratory failure C. Normal ventilation D. Metabolic alkalosis
B
True or False: Mechanical ventilation reduces the work of breathing.
True
Which is a key feature of volume-controlled ventilation (VC)? A. Pressure is fixed B. Tidal volume varies C. Tidal volume is fixedD. No control over ventilation
C
(SATA) Advantages of volume-controlled ventilation include: (Select all that apply) A. Guaranteed minute ventilation B. Lower risk of barotrauma C. Stable CO₂ control D. Variable tidal volume E. Predictable ventilation
A,C,E
A major disadvantage of volume-controlled ventilation is: A. Low oxygen delivery B. Increased airway pressures C. Decreased CO₂ elimination D. Reduced tidal volume
B
Which is true about pressure-controlled ventilation (PC)? A. Delivers fixed tidal volume B. Limits airway pressure C. Eliminates risk of hypoventilation D. Prevents all lung injury
B
(SATA) Advantages of pressure-controlled ventilation include: (Select all that apply) A. Lower airway pressures B. Improved comfort C. Fixed minute ventilation D. Reduced dyssynchrony E. Guaranteed tidal volume
A,B,D
The greatest risk with pressure-controlled ventilation is: A. Barotrauma B. Hypoventilation C. Hyperoxygenation D. Bradycardia
B
Which ventilator setting determines oxygen concentration delivered? A. RR B. PEEP C. FiO₂ D. VT
C
Which setting helps prevent alveolar collapse? A. RR B. VT C. PEEP D. FiO₂
C
Minute ventilation is calculated as: A. RR ÷ VT B. VT × RR C. FiO₂ × RR D. PEEP × VT
B
True or False: Increasing respiratory rate increases CO₂ elimination.
True
In VC-CMV (Assist Control), what occurs? A. Only spontaneous breaths occur B. All breaths receive full support C. No patient triggering allowed D. Pressure varies with each breath only
B
Which mode allows spontaneous breathing between mandatory breaths? A. VC-CMV B. VC-IMV C. PC-CMV D. PSV
B
Which mode is primarily used for spontaneous breathing with pressure support? A. VC-CMV B. VC-IMV C. PC-CSV (PSV) D. PC-CMV
C
True or False: In pressure-controlled modes, tidal volume remains constant.
False
Indications for PEEP include: (Select all that apply) A. Hypoxemia B. Atelectasis C. ARDS D. Hypertension E. Pulmonary edema
A,B,C,E
High levels of PEEP may cause: A. Hypertension B. Increased cardiac output C. Hypotension D. Hyperkalemia
C
A high-pressure alarm most likely indicates: A. Disconnection B. Air leak C. Obstruction D. Low oxygen
C
(SATA) Causes of high-pressure alarm include: (Select all that apply) A. Secretions B. Kinked tubing C. Bronchospasm D. Disconnection E. Patient biting tube
A,B,C,E
The priority nursing action for any ventilator alarm is: A. Silence alarm B. Call provider C. Assess the patient D. Increase oxygen
C
A low-pressure alarm suggests: A. Obstruction B. Disconnection C. Bronchospasm D. Fluid overload
B
True or False: An apnea alarm may indicate sedation overdose.
True
What is the first action in accidental extubation? A. Call provider B. Apply nasal cannula C. Bag-valve-mask ventilation D. Obtain ABG
C
During respiratory distress, the nurse should: A. Increase sedation B. Disconnect and manually ventilate C. Turn off ventilator D. Lower FiO₂
B
(SATA) Nursing responsibilities during intubation include: (Select all that apply) A. Prepare suction B. Position patient C. Administer sedation D. Confirm placement E. Leave room
A,B,C,D
Which confirms proper tube placement? A. Pulse oximetry B. Chest X-ray C. Blood pressure D. Temperature
B
Indication for tracheostomy: A. Short-term oxygen B. Long-term ventilation C. Mild dyspnea D. Hypertension
B
(SATA) Benefits of tracheostomy include: (Select all that apply) A. Increased comfort B. Easier communication C. Increased airway resistance D. Improved nutrition E. Reduced need for suctioning
A,B,D
Normal tracheostomy cuff pressure: A. 5–10 mmHg B. 10–15 mmHg C. 20–25 mmHg D. 30–40 mmHg
C
A cuffed tracheostomy tube is used to: A. Improve speech B. Prevent aspiration C. Decrease oxygen delivery D. Reduce ventilation
B
A fenestrated tracheostomy tube allows: A. Mechanical ventilation only B. Speech C. Increased pressure D. No airflow
B
(SATA) Evidence-based VAP prevention includes: (Select all that apply) A. HOB elevation 30–45° B. Daily sedation interruption C. Oral care D. Supine positioning E. Early mobility
A,B,C,E
Which position reduces VAP risk? A. Supine B. Trendelenburg C. HOB 30–45° D. Prone
C
True or False: Ventilator condensation should be drained away from the patient.
True
A ventilated patient is anxious and cannot speak. Best intervention: A. Increase sedation B. Provide communication tools C. Ignore behavior D. Restrain patient
B
(SATA) Interdisciplinary team roles include: (Select all that apply) A. Respiratory therapist – ventilator management B. Dietitian – nutrition C. Speech therapy – swallowing D. PT/OT – mobility E. Pharmacist – airway suction
A,B,C,D
Post-extubation priority assessment: A. Blood glucose B. Airway patency C. Urine output D. Skin integrity
B