Studied by 30 people
Questions 1-40 are the quiz packet replacements, and 41- the rest is the smartbook replacement (they are all in order)
Low levels of_________ can have dire consequences on the functioning of neurons because of its role in membrane repolarization.
A) Cl−
B) Na+
C) H+
D) K
A neuron is receiving a stimulus which gets stronger and stronger. The result is
A) duration of the action potential increases.
B) resonance of action potentials increases.
C) frequency of occurrence of action potentials increases.
D) height of the action potentials increases.
E) amplitude of the action potential increases
Arrange the events of synaptic transmission in correct sequence.
(1) Na+ diffuses into the cell and cause a local potential
(2) Neurotransmitter binds with receptor on postsynaptic cell
(3) Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft
(4) Membrane permeability to Na+ on postsynaptic cell increases
(5) Action potential causes release of neurotransmitter
A) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
D) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
E) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
Damage to a postsynaptic membrane would
A) destroy vesicles containing neurotransmitter.
B) increase neurotransmitter release.
C) increase neurotransmitter production.
D) decrease the release of neurotransmitter.
E) interfere with the ability to respond to neurotransmitter.
When a neurotransmitter binds to its receptor and increases the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to Na+,
A) Na+ diffuses out of the cell.
B) the membrane will be hyperpolarized.
C) an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) will result.
D) the membrane will become impermeable to K+.
E) more Cl− will also diffuse into the cell.
A person who has seizures might have a deficit of which of the following?
A) Histamine
B) Dopamine
C) Glutamate
D) Serotonin
E) GABA
Identify the correct sequence of the structures as they are involved in activity at a chemical synapse
A) Synaptic cleft; presynaptic terminal; postsynaptic membrane
B) Postsynaptic membrane; synaptic cleft; presynaptic terminal
C) Presynaptic terminal; synaptic cleft; postsynaptic membrane
D) Presynaptic terminal; postsynaptic membrane; synaptic clef
Most metabolic and regulatory functions in a neuron happen where?
A) The axon
B) The dendrites
C) The Schwann cell
D) The axon hillock
E) The cell body or soma
A myelin sheath is composed primarily of_________
A) carbohydrates
B) glycoproteins
C) polysaccharides
D) lipids
E) proteins
10) Which type of neuronal pathway allows for a stimulus to be transmitted to the most number of cells?
A) Convergent
B) Divergent
C) Reverberating
D) Both "Convergent" and "Reverberating" are correct.
Doctor Johansson wants to test a patient's reflexes by briskly striking the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. Which reflex is Dr. Johansson testing?
A) Crossed extensor reflex
B) Knee-jerk reflex
C) Reciprocal innervation
D) Golgi tendon reflex
E) Withdrawal reflex
Sam is curling very heavy weights and suddenly drops them. Which reflex forced this action by Sam to prevent tendon damage?
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) Alpha motor neuron reflex
C) Gamma motor reflex
D) Withdrawal reflex
E) Muscle spindle reflex
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, the regions innervated by that spinal nerve would experience complete loss of_________.
A) sensation and movement
B) pain
C) movement
D) sensation
E) None of the choices are correct
Which of the following sensory functions involves neurons in the dorsal root ganglion?
A) Touch
B) Vision
C) Taste
D) Smell
E) Hearing
Which of the following is not a function associated with the spinal cord?
A) Conduct motor information down the cord
B) Protect neurons in both the ascending and descending tracts
C) Conduct sensory information up to the brain
D) Coordinate the alternating contraction of several muscle groups associated withlocomotion
E) Mediate a reflex, such as the withdrawal of a hand from pain
Which of the following is not a property of reflexes?
A) Reflexes do not require a stimulus.
B) Reflexes are quick responses of the nervous system.
C) Reflex responses are very predictable.
D) Reflexes are not voluntary.
E) Reflexes are responses to sensory inputs
A physician must administer an anesthesia directly to the CNS via the vertebral column. Howmany layers of the meninges must be punctured to do so?
A) Three to introduce the anesthesia directly to the spinal cord
B) Two layers to introduce the anesthesia to the subarachnoid space
C) None to introduce the anesthesia to the epidural space
D) One layer to introduce the anesthesia to the subarachnoid space
The cervical region of the spinal cord lacks associated autonomic nuclei. How will a crosssection of the spinal cord in this region differ from a cross section of the thoracic region?
A) There should be no difference in the appearance from one region compared to other regions.
B) Ventral gray horns are smaller in the cervical region due to fewer motor nuclei.
C) Lateral gray horns are not present in the cervical region.
D) Posterior gray horns are lacking in the cervical region.
Dennis has lost the ability to voluntarily raise his left arm due to damage to his spinal cordand associated nerves. Which of the following is a possible explanation for Dennis's symptom?
A) One or more ventral roots in the cervical region of the spinal cord have been damaged.
B) One or more dorsal roots in the cervical region of the spinal cord have been damaged.
C) One or more ventral roots in the thoracic region of the spinal cord have been damaged.
D) One or more dorsal roots in the thoracic region of the spinal cord have been damaged
Which of the following would explain the loss of certain sensations from the skin of the posterior region of the upper limb?
A) One or more dorsal roots in the thoracic region of the spinal cord have been damaged.
B) One or more ventral roots in the thoracic region of the spinal cord have been damaged.
C) One or more ventral roots in the cervical region of the spinal cord have been damaged.
D) One or more dorsal roots in the cervical region of the spinal cord have been damaged
Consider the following five terms and determine which does not belong
A) Cardiac center
B) Pons
C) Olives
D) Pyramids
E) Medulla oblongata
A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in a rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction,and elevated blood pressure would probably be located in the_________.
a) medulla oblongata
B) pons
C) hypothalamus
D) cerebrum
E) cerebellum
A bird hits the windshield of your car, and you reflexively duck and close your eyes. Whichof the following is responsible for this action?
A) Thalamus
B) Superior colliculi
C) Cerebellum
D) Reticular formation
E) Medulla
A person with a lesion in the brain exhibited the following manifestations: normal tension inskeletal muscle, disturbed fine motor control, exhibited tremors when reaching for objects.What part of the brain is most likely damaged?
A) The cerebellum
B) The basal ganglia
C) The pyramids of the medulla oblongata
D) The frontal lobe of the cerebrum
E) The prefrontal lobe of the cerebrum
Which of the following statements concerning structures of the diencephalon is false?
A) The third ventricle separates the two large portions of the thalamus.
B) The thalamus controls many endocrine functions.
C) The thalamus projects sensory information to the cerebral cortex.
D) The pineal body may play a role in controlling the onset of puberty.
E) The subthalamic nuclei are associated with the basal nuclei.
During brain surgery, the superior portion of the postcentral gyrus of a patient is stimulated.What do you expect the patient to do?
A) Move his hand
B) Talk to the surgeon
C) Smile
D) Flex his fingers
E) Feel pressure on his toes
If an animal has had its cerebrum removed, it cannot_________.
A) live
B) regulate body temperature
C) see
D) breathe
E) regulate heart rate
Lesions of the basal nuclei could cause
A) a slight shaking of the hands or head.
B) loss of the sense of smell.
C) uncontrolled rage.
D) fluent but circular speech.
E) loss of memory
Which of the following would help to determine if the oculomotor nerve was damaged?
A) Have the patient look superiorly and inferiorly
B) Have the patient cry
C) Determine if the patient still has night vision
D) Have the patient distinguish between green and red colors
E) Determine if the patient can see anything
A kiss on the cheek would be perceived by impulses from the_________ nerve.
A) trochlear
B) trigeminal
C) abducens
D) vestibulocochlear
E) facial
Which of these combinations of general senses depends on mechanoreceptors?
A) Taste and smell
B) Proprioception and temperature
C) Pressure and proprioception
D) Touch and temperature
E) Pressure and temperature
Terrance is told by his physician that he has lesions on one side of his spinal cord, which cut the lateral spinothalamic tract. Therefore, Terrance will have an inability to perceive
A) his sense of proprioception on the same side of his body below the level of the injury.
B) cutaneous sensations on the opposite side of his body below the level of injury.
C) sensations of vibration on the opposite side of his body at the level of the injury.
D) sensations of tickle on the same side of his body below the level of injury.
E) sensations of touch from both sides of his body below the level of injury
During brain surgery, the superior portion of the primary somatic sensory cortex of a patient is stimulated. The patient is most likely
A) flex his fingers.
B) talk to the surgeon.
C) smile.
D) feel something touching his back.
E) wiggle his toes
A nurse is caring for a patient who exhibits the following symptoms:
(1) Inability to maintain balance while walking
(2) Normal intelligence
(3) Can initiate voluntary movements, although they are somewhat uncoordinated
(4) Decreased tone in the skeletal muscles
The patient is probably suffering from a condition that affected the _________.
A) midbrain
B) basal ganglia
C) cerebral cortex
D) cerebellum
E) brainstem
Damage to Wernicke area would result in
A) apraxia.
B) facial paralysis.
C) facial tics.
D) "seeing stars".
E) aphasia.
Which of the cortical areas listed below is most likely to be stimulated first when repeating aword you just heard spoken?
A) Broca area
B) Primary motor area
C) Wernicke area
D) Primary auditory cortex
E) Auditory association area
A patient with a lesion in the hippocampus may have decreased_________.
A) sensory memory
B) declarative memory
C) Pavlovian reflexes
D) procedural memory
E) short term memory
Which of the following is an example of procedural or implicit memory?
A) Reciting a poem
B) Remembering your name
C) Locating Russia on a globe
D) Being afraid of snakes
E) Performing a choreographed dance
Lesions of the limbic system might result in
A) decreased sexual activity.
B) enhanced fear and anger responses.
C) loss of coordination.
D) a voracious appetite.
E) loss of sensation.
Tyler has noticed lately that he doesn't feel pain in his left arm. Which of the following mightexplain his issue?
A) Damage to the spinothalamic pathway
B) Damage to the anterior spinocerebellar pathway
C) Lack of decussation in the fasciculus gracilis tract of the dorsal column mediallemniscal pathway
D) Damage to the tectospinal pathway
The nervous system
A) interprets or assesses information.
B) monitors internal and external stimuli.
C) maintains homeostasis.
D) transmits information in the form of action potentials.
E) All of the choices are correct.
The central nervous system include the
A) sensory receptors
B) spinal cord
C) spinal nerves
D) ganglia
E) cranial nerves
There are_________ pairs of cranial nerves and_________ pairs of spinal nerves.
A) 31; 12
B) 12; 31
C) 10; 3
D) 12; 32
E) 30; 10
Cell bodies of the peripheral nervous system are located in
A) the motor division.
B) the sensory division.
C) ganglia.
D) Schwann cells.
E) nerves.
The sensory (afferent) division of the peripheral nervous system
A) stimulates glands to release hormones.
B) transmits action potentials to sensory organs.
C) conveys action potentials to the CNS.
D) stimulates muscle contractions.
E) does not involve sensory receptors.
The motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system
A) has nerve cell bodies located in ganglia near the spinal cord and brain
.B) is a division of the CNS.
C) detects presence of food in the stomach.
D) detects a stimulus.
E) transmits impulses from the CNS to effectors, such as skeletal muscle
The autonomic nervous system
A) has two sets of neurons in a series.
B) stimulates skeletal muscle contractions.
C) is involved in problem solving.
D) is under voluntary control.
E) does not include the central nervous system
The central nervous system.
A) does not interact with the peripheral nervous system.
B) initiates visual and auditory stimuli.
C) consists of 43 pairs of nerves
.D) is the site for processing information.
E) is totally involuntary
The junction of a neuron with another cell is a/an_________
A) effector
B) ganglion
C) receptor
D) synapse
The enteric nervous system consists of plexuses within the walls of the_________.
A) brain
B) spinal cord
C) digestive tract
D) urinary bladder
Dendrites
A) are the input part of the neuron.
B) are generally long and unbranched.
C) form synapses with the microglia.
D) conduct action potentials away from the cell body.
E) contain the trigger zone.
Axons
A) are numerous extensions from each neuron.
B) do not have a resting membrane potential.
C) have a distal portion that branches to form the presynaptic terminals.
D) do not have a trigger zone.
E) contain the nucleus.
A neuron within the central nervous system that carries action potentials from one neuron to another is called a/an_________.
A) afferent neuron
B) efferent neuron
C) motor neuron
D) interneuron
E) sensory neuron
Neurons that have a single axon and a single dendrite are_________.
A) bipolar
B) tripolar
C) pseudo-unipolar
D) multipolar
Gaps or interruptions in the myelin sheath are called_________.
A) nodes of Ranvier
B) neurofilaments
C) tight junctions
D) internodes
E) gap junctions
The conus medullaris
A) anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx.
B) is a tapered, cone like region immediately inferior to the lumbar enlargement
.C) is located adjacent to the foramen magnum.
D) marks the exit of nerves to the upper extremity.
E) is inferior to the cauda equina.
The thickest of the meninges is the_________.
A) pia mater
B) dura mater
C) arachnoid mater
D) subarachnoid space
E) subdural space
The middle, thin, spider-like meninx is the_________.
A) ecto mater
B) dura mater
C) pia mater
D) arachnoid mater
Where is cerebrospinal fluid found around the spinal cord?
A) Subarachnoid space
B) Thecal sac
C) Subdural space
D) Epidural space
The motor root of a spinal nerve is also referred to as the_________ root.
A) dorsal
B) sensory
C) afferent
D) ventral
E) posterior
In the spinal cord, white matter is organized into
A) horns and the gray matter into roots.
B) columns and the gray matter into tracts.
C) columns and the gray matter into horns
D) horns and the gray matter into columns
Structurally, the simplest reflex is the_________.
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) stretch reflex
C) alternating reflex
D) withdrawal reflex
E) reciprocal reflex
Muscle spindles
A) are innervated by gamma motor neurons
.B) are found encapsulated in nerve endings.
C) originate in the spinal cord.
D) are innervated by alpha motor neurons.
E) are specialized nerve cells.
A reflex that protects limbs by removing them from painful stimuli is the_________ reflex.
A) alternating
B) crossed extensor
C) withdrawal
D) Golgi tendon
E) stretch
Which of the following combinations indicates the correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs?
A) 7 cervical - 12 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal
B) 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 4 sacral - 1 coccygeal
C) 7 cervical - 13 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal
D) 7 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 6 sacral - 1 coccygeal
E) 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal
Dermatomal maps are important clinically because they
A) locate the position of cranial nerves.
B) indicate what muscles are innervated by each spinal nerve.
C) can be used to check for motor function.
D) can be used to help locate nerve damage.
E) can be used to detect cranial nerve damage.
Intercostal nerves are formed from the
A) cervical plexus.
B) rami communicans of the thoracic spinal nerves.
C) dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves.
D) thoracic plexus.
E) ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves.
What is found in the dorsal root ganglion?
A) The cell bodies of pseudo-unipolar sensory neurons
B) The cell bodies of multipolar motor neurons
C) The cell bodies of multipolar interneurons
D) The cell bodies of bipolar sensory neurons
What is found in the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord?
A) The cell bodies of somatic sensory neurons
B) The cell bodies of sensory neurons
C) The cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons
D) The cell bodies of somatic motor neurons
Reflex arcs
A) are the basic structural units of the nervous system.
B) involve inhibitory neurons.
C) are capable of receiving a stimulus and yielding a response.
D) do not involve the spinal cord.
E) occur primarily in the cerebral cortex of the brain
The cerebrum develops from the embryonic region called the_________
A) diencephalon
B) telencephalon
C) mesencephalon
D) metencephalon
E) rhombencephalon
What do the cavities of the neural tube become in the adult brain?
A) Coelom
B) Subarachnoid space
C) Auricles
D) Ventricles
In the CNS, clusters of gray matter containing cell bodies are called_________.
A) peduncles
B) ganglia
C) tracts
D) nuclei
E) pyramids
The pyramids of the medulla contain_________.
A) descending sensory tracts
B) ascending sensory tracts
C) ascending motor tracts
D) descending motor tracts
E) None of the choices are correct
The nuclei of cranial nerves III, IV, and V are located in the_________.
A) pons
B) midbrain
C) diencephalon
D) medulla oblongata
E) cerebellum
The superior and inferior colliculi are located in which of the following portions of the midbrain?
A) Cerebral peduncles
B) Red nucleus
C) Tectum (roof)
D) Substantia nigra
E) Tegmentum (floor)
The substantia nigra interconnects with the_________.
A) reticular nuclei
B) red nuclei
C) tectum
D) basal nuclei
E) tegmentum
The sleep/wake cycle is influenced by the_________.
A) basal nuclei
B) thalamic nuclei
C) cerebellum
D) vermis
E) reticular formation
The cerebellum communicates with other parts of the CNS by means of nerve tracts calledthe_________.
A) cerebellar peduncles
B) vermis
C) flocculonodular pathways
D) arbor vitae
E) folia
Most sensory input that ascends through the spinal cord and brainstem projects tothe_________.
A) hypothalamus
B) subthalamus
C) mammillary bodies
D) thalamus
E) pineal gland
Which of the following brain areas serves as the major control center of the autonomic nervous system and endocrine system?
A) Brainstem
B) Hypothalamus
C) Pons
D) Thalamus
E) Midbrain
The lateral fissure separates the_________ from the rest of the cerebrum.
A) parietal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe
E) cerebellum
Association fibers connect
A) the cerebrum with the spinal cord.
B) areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the midbrain.
C) areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the spinal cord
.D) areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere.
E) one cerebral hemisphere to another
What is the large C-shaped mass of white matter that consists of nerve fibers that connect thetwo cerebral hemispheres?
A) Vermis
B) Corpus callosum
C) Intermediate mass
D) Gyrus
E) Infundibulum
Which of the following is a basal nucleus located in the cerebrum?
A) Habenula
B) Substantia nigra
C) Subthalamic nucleus
D) Red nucleus
E) Caudate nucleus
Which of the following is a general sense?
A) Taste
B) Hearing
C) Vision
D) Touch
E) Smell
A state of conscious awareness of stimuli received by sensory receptors is called_________
A) inclination
B) projection
C) adaptation
D) translation
E) perception
Free nerve endings respond to
A) temperature change and pressure
.B) temperature change and pain.
C) chemicals.
D) pressure and vibration.
E) light touch and two-point discrimination.
The_________ are distributed throughout the dermal papillae and are involved in_________touch.
A) Golgi tendon organs; limited awareness
B) Merkel disks; very deep
C) Pacinian corpuscles; very light
D) Meissner corpuscles; two-point discrimination
E) Muscle spindles; fine proprioceptive
Decreased sensitivity to a continued stimulus is called_________.
A) phantom pain
B) translation
C) conduction
D) projection
E) adaptation
Which of the following is an ascending pathway in the spinal cord?
A) Anterior corticospinal tract
B) Lateral corticospinal tract
C) Tectospinal tract
D) Lateral spinothalamic tract
E) Rubrospinal tract
Amputees frequently perceive pain in the amputated structure. This type of pain is called_________ pain.
A) phantom
B) ghost
C) referred
D) gate
E) chronic
When the CNS responds to tissue damage by decreasing the pain threshold and increasing itssensitivity to pain, this is called_________.
A) phantom pain
B) central sensitization
C) referred pain
D) peripheral sensitization
E) cumulative sensitization
The primary somatic sensory or general sensory area is located in the
A) precentral gyrus.
B) postcentral gyrus.
C) superior temporal gyrus.
D) central sulcus.
E) prefrontal gyrus
The taste area is located in the_________.
A) parietal lobe
B) insula
C) temporal lobe
D) frontal lobe
The auditory cortex is located in the_________.
A) temporal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) insula
D) frontal lobe
Which of the following is a descending pathway in the spinal cord?
A) Spinothalamic tract
B) Spinoreticular tract
C) Trigeminothalamic tract
D) Fasciculus gracilis
E) Corticospinal tract
Two tracts found within the extrapyramidal system are the_________.
A) corticospinal and corticobulbar
B) rubrospinal and corticospinal
C) spinothalamic and tectospinal
D) vestibulospinal and rubrospinal
E) corticobulbar and vestibulospina
Wernicke area is necessary for
A) smiling.
B) understanding and formulating coherent speech.
C) initiating the muscular movements of speech.
D) motivation.
E) processing visual images
In working memory,
A) information is retained for less than a second.
B) the frontal lobe plays the most important role.
C) there is increased synaptic activity by long-term potentiation.
D) there is consolidation of information.
E) current information is lost when new information is presented
Note 
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