Female Reproductive Physiology, Disorders, Contraception, and Pregnancy

A comprehensive set of 100 question-and-answer flashcards covering the ovarian and uterine cycles, hormonal regulation, reproductive disorders, sexually transmitted diseases, contraception methods, and early pregnancy events.

During which days of the ovarian cycle does the follicular phase usually occur?

Days 1–13

Which pituitary hormone rises at the start of the follicular phase to stimulate follicle growth?

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

As growing follicles secrete estrogen in the follicular phase, what type of feedback does estrogen initially exert on the brain?

Negative feedback

What happens to FSH levels once estrogen exerts negative feedback during the follicular phase?

FSH levels decrease so that only the best follicle continues to mature

Which anterior pituitary hormone slowly rises and is primed by estrogen for the upcoming ovulation?

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

What hormonal event directly triggers ovulation on approximately day 14?

The LH surge

What happens to estrogen levels immediately after ovulation?

They drop sharply

After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into what structure?

The corpus luteum

Which two hormones are chiefly secreted by the corpus luteum?

Progesterone and a smaller amount of estrogen

What effect do luteal progesterone and estrogen have on FSH and LH secretion?

They produce negative feedback that suppresses FSH and LH

If fertilization does NOT occur, what happens to the corpus luteum?

It degenerates, causing progesterone and estrogen to fall

Which menstrual cycle phase begins when the endometrium sheds?

Menstrual flow phase

In the uterine proliferative phase, which hormone from the ovary thickens the endometrium?

Estrogen

Which hormone mainly maintains and matures the uterine lining during the secretory phase?

Progesterone

What uterine event starts a new cycle when progesterone and estrogen fall?

Menstruation

What are uterine fibroids and are they cancerous?

Benign estrogen-dependent tumors of the uterus

Why do uterine fibroids tend to regress with age?

Because estrogen levels decline as women get older

What is endometriosis?

Growth of normal endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity

Which life-threatening menstrual-related bacterial infection is associated with tampon use?

Toxic shock syndrome

Define amenorrhea.

Absence of menstruation

What distinguishes primary from secondary amenorrhea?

Primary: menstruation never started; Secondary: menstruation stops after previously occurring

Which uterine bleeding disorder is characterized by painful cramps thought to result from prostaglandins?

Dysmenorrhea

Name two common physical or emotional symptoms grouped under PMS.

Cramping and cravings (others include soreness, mood changes)

What does PMDD stand for and how does it differ from PMS?

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder; it causes debilitating mental-health symptoms

How can extreme under- or over-nourishment affect fertility?

It alters leptin and estrogen levels, signaling the brain to inhibit conception

What does PCOS stand for?

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Why do women with PCOS often experience irregular menstrual cycles?

Cysts prevent normal ovulation and cause irregular estrogen and progesterone release

Women with PCOS typically have higher levels of which androgen?

Testosterone

Define vaginitis or vaginosis in general terms.

Inflammation or infection of the vagina due to overgrowth of organisms

Which fungus causes candidiasis (yeast infection)?

Candida species

Give two classic symptoms of vaginal candidiasis.

Thick, white, clumpy discharge and itching/irritation

Why can antibiotics worsen a yeast infection?

They kill bacteria that normally keep yeast in check

Which protozoan causes trichomoniasis?

Trichomonas vaginalis

Describe the typical discharge associated with trichomoniasis.

Thin, gray, white, or yellow frothy discharge with fishy odor

Gardnerella vaginalis infection most often produces what odor?

Fishy or foul odor

Into which pathogen category does trichomoniasis fall?

Protozoan sexually transmitted disease

Genital herpes is caused by which type of pathogen?

Virus (Herpes simplex virus)

What characterizes a herpes lesion?

Clusters of fluid-filled blisters that can rupture and spread virus

Is genital herpes curable?

No; symptoms can be managed but the virus persists

HPV stands for what?

Human papillomavirus

Name one cancer strongly linked to certain HPV strains.

Cervical cancer

What are two common treatments for external genital warts caused by HPV?

Topical creams or cryotherapy (freezing/burning removal)

Which vaccine-preventable viral STI can cause liver inflammation and jaundice?

Hepatitis (A, B, or C viruses)

List two classic symptoms of acute viral hepatitis.

Upper abdominal pain and jaundice (others: nausea, fatigue, itching)

HIV is classified as what kind of virus?

A retrovirus (RNA virus that reverse transcribes into DNA)

Which immune-cell receptor does HIV primarily bind to for entry?

CD4 receptor (with CCR5 or CXCR4 coreceptor)

What does AIDS stand for?

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

Name one major route of HIV transmission.

Unprotected sex (others: sharing needles, mother-to-child, contaminated blood)

What is the general goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART)?

To block HIV replication and slow disease progression

Which ART class prevents viral RNA from being copied into DNA?

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Syphilis is caused by which type of organism?

Bacterium (Treponema pallidum)

What painless lesion is characteristic of primary syphilis?

Chancre sore

Penicillin is the treatment of choice for which bacterial STI?

Syphilis

Chlamydia is often called the “silent disease” because why?

It can be asymptomatic or have very mild symptoms

Untreated chlamydia in women can progress to what serious condition?

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and possible infertility

Which bacterial STI can spread to blood or joints if left untreated?

Gonorrhea

Name two common symptoms of symptomatic gonorrhea in women.

Painful urination and increased vaginal discharge (also bleeding)

What pregnancy risk increases from untreated PID due to gonorrhea or chlamydia?

Ectopic pregnancy

List two permanent birth-control methods.

Vasectomy and female sterilization (tubal ligation)

What device is inserted into the uterus and can remain for up to 12 years?

Intrauterine device (IUD)

Which hormone is released by the Mirena IUD to help prevent ovulation?

Progestin

How long does the subdermal implant (Implanon/Nexplanon) typically last?

Up to 3 years

What is the main mechanism by which progestin-only implants prevent pregnancy?

They prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus

LAM stands for what postpartum contraceptive method?

Lactational Amenorrhea Method

For how many months postpartum is LAM considered effective when exclusively breastfeeding?

Up to 6 months

Which injectable contraceptive is commonly known as Depo-Provera, and how long does each shot last?

Medroxyprogesterone acetate; it lasts 3 months

Name the weekly hormonal contraceptive patch brand mentioned in the notes.

Ortho Evra

How often is the NuvaRing typically inserted and removed?

Inserted once a month and left in place for 3 weeks

What are the three main ways combination oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy?

Inhibit ovulation, thicken cervical mucus, thin endometrium

Which menstrual phase length is generally constant at 14 days?

The luteal phase

How do you estimate an individual’s ovulation day using cycle length?

Subtract 14 days from the total cycle length

Give two barrier contraceptives available without a prescription.

Male condom and female condom (others: sponge)

Which over-the-counter barrier method can also reduce STI transmission?

Condoms (male or female)

What is the primary principle of fertility-awareness methods like the rhythm method?

Avoid intercourse during the fertile window identified by cycle tracking

What emergency contraceptive pill can be used up to 5 days after unprotected sex?

Plan B One-Step or Next Choice

Besides pills, which device can serve as emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days?

Copper IUD

During fertilization, where do the sperm and egg typically meet?

In the fallopian tube

What name is given to the single diploid cell formed when egg and sperm nuclei fuse?

Zygote

What is cleavage in early embryonic development?

Rapid mitotic cell divisions of the zygote as it travels to the uterus

What hollow structure implants into the endometrium around 5–6 days post-fertilization?

Blastocyst

Which embryonic tissue makes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

Trophoblast

What is the role of hCG in early pregnancy?

It rescues the corpus luteum to maintain progesterone and estrogen secretion

At approximately what gestational age does the placenta take over progesterone production?

Around 8 weeks

What two developmental processes follow implantation and are critical for forming tissues and organs?

Gastrulation and organogenesis

Which hormone replaces LH in maintaining the corpus luteum during early pregnancy?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Name the three primary hormonal blocks of combination contraceptives (processes they inhibit).

Ovulation, fertilization, and implantation

Why do condoms remain essential even when using hormonal birth control?

They provide protection against sexually transmitted diseases

What contraceptive method relies on surgical interruption of the vas deferens?

Vasectomy

Which contraceptive method requires measuring basal body temperature daily?

Basal body temperature method (a fertility-awareness technique)

Define coitus interruptus.

Withdrawal of the penis before ejaculation to reduce pregnancy risk

What is the typical failure rate category for withdrawal (per 100 women per year)?

About 30 pregnancies

Name one nonhormonal vaginal barrier that must be fitted by a clinician.

Diaphragm or cervical cap

What substance is often paired with barrier devices to kill sperm?

Spermicide

Which bacterial vaginal infection is linked to an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria like Gardnerella?

Bacterial vaginosis

List two classic signs of bacterial vaginosis.

Fishy odor and thin gray-white discharge

What is the main serious hepatic complication of chronic viral hepatitis infection?

Liver cancer or liver failure

Which ART class prevents HIV DNA from integrating into host chromosomes?

Integrase inhibitors

Name the ART class that blocks the final cutting of viral proteins, preventing maturation.

Protease inhibitors

What late-stage syphilis complications can occur if untreated?

Internal organ damage such as paralysis, blindness, or dementia

Which sexually transmitted bacterium can cause epididymitis and infertility in men if untreated?

Chlamydia trachomatis