Pharm E1- Neuro

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168 Terms

1

What is continuous seizure activity w/o the regaining of mental status (neurological emergency secondary to cerebral ischemia)?

Status epilepticus

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2

What is abnormal behavior that results from abnormal discharges of cortical neurons?

seizure

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3

What is epilepsy?

symptom of disturbed electrical brain activity, w/ periodic recurrence of seizures w/ or w/o convulsions

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4

What are treatment options for epilepsy?

AEDs, vagal nerve stimulator, surgery, and ketogenic diet

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5

How do ketogenic diets help epilepsy?

lower pH / acidosis → higher threshold / harder for seizure to occur

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6

Are AEDs disease modifying?

no

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7

What are the main groups of drugs to treat epilepsy?

Na channel blockers, CCBs, GABA enhancers, glutamate blockers, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, hormones

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8

AEDs that inhibit which calcium channel are the best for treating absence seizures (ethosuximide)?

T calcium channels

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9

Which GABA receptor is more important in the treatment of seizures?

GABA A (facilitates passage of Cl-)

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10

What drugs modify the NMDA glutamate receptor site?

Felbamate & Levetiracetam

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11

What drugs modify the AMPA/Kainate glutamate receptor set

topiramate

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12

What group of drugs increases the concentration of H ions and decrease the pH, which increases the seizure threshold?

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

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13

What drug?

  • inhibit Na channels

  • highly protein bound to albumin

  • Michaelis mentan pharmacokinetcs- half life increases as dose& serum conc. increases

  • CYP3A4 & 2C inducer

  • requires TDM

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

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14

What is the first line agent for generalized and partial seizures?

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

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15

What are SEs of Phenytoin (Dilantin)?

SJS, rash, lethargy, blurred vision, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia, vit D deficiency & osteomalacia

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16

Why should phenytoin be avoided IM & IV? (use fosphenytoin instead)

high risk of phlebitis and CV complications

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17

What drug?

  • Na channel blocker

  • induces its own metabolism; half life shortens as enzymes are upregulated

  • induces CYP3A4, 2C9, 2C19

  • also has anticonvulsant activity

  • requires TDM & monitor LFTs

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

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18

What are SEs of Carbamazepine (Tegretol)?

diplopia, dizziness, elevated LFTs, hyponatremia, bone marrow suppression

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19

Both drugs cause hyponatremia, but which one is the bigger offender & more likely to cause SIADH?

Oxcarbazepine

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20

What is Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal) MOA?

Na channel blocker

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21

What is the MOA of valproic acid (Depakote)?

Na channel inhibitor, Ca channel inhibitor, GABA enhancer

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22

What SEs are seen with Valproic Acid (Depakote)?

GI disturbances (MC), hepatotoxicity (monitor LFTs), CYP interactions, sedation, ataxia, tremor, weight gain, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, & teratogenic (neural tube defect)

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23

What drug is teratogenic and can cause neural tube defects if given during pregnancy?

Valproic acid (Depakote)

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24

What drugs are Benzodiazepines?

Diazepam (Diastat)

Lorazepam (Activan)

Midazolam (Versed)

Clonazepam (Klonopin)

Clobazam (Onfi)

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25

What is the most common IV agent for acute seizures?

Lorazepam (Ativan)

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26

What drugs?

  • enhance GABA A activity & increase Cl- influx

  • C-IV

  • go to agents for acute seizures (PR/IN/IM/IV); PO better for prevention

  • SEs: sedation (MC) & withdrawal seizures

Benzodiazepines

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27

What is the drug of choice for neonatal seizures?

Phenobarbital (luminal)

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28

What drug?

  • activate GABA A to increase Cl- influx

  • C-IV

  • rarely used d/t ADRs; reserved for refractory status epileptics or those who failed other AEDs

Phenobarbital (luminal)

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29

What side effects are seen with phenobarbital?

sedation & CNS depression; paradoxical reaction in children (inc excitation)

requires TDM

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30

What drug is used IV for status epileptics and can induce a “pentobarb coma”?

Pentobarbital (Nembutal)

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31

What drug has limited use d/t fatal aplastic anemia, hepatotoxicity, and drug interactions and is used only in refractory epileptic patients?

Felbamate (Felbatol)

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32

What is the drug of choice for absence seizures?

(*Test Q)

Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

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33

What is Ethosuximide’s MOA?

inhibit neuronal Ca channel

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34

What drug?

  • structure related to GABA- may enhance GABA synthesis & interact with Ca channels

  • adjust in renal failure

  • main SE- CNS depression

  • adjunctive AED & can treat neuropathic pain

Gabapentin (Neurontin) & Pregabalin (Lyrica)

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35

Pregabalin is a _____

C-V

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36

What is Lamotrigine’s (Lamictal) MOA?

inhibit sodium channels, inhibit glutamate release, & modulation calcium channels

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37

What drug?

  • AED- less sedation than other meds

  • metabolism inhibited by VPA (higher levels- lower dosage);

  • induced by carbamazepine & phenytoin (lower levels- increase dosage)

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

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38

What SEs are seen with Lamotrigine (Lamictal)?

SJS, dizziness, ataxia, N, V

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39

What drug?

  • bind to synaptic SV2A & prevent glutamate release

  • becoming first line for epilepsy; used as adjunctive for partial seizures

  • 60% renal elimination - adjust w/ renal issues

Levetiracetam (Keppra)

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40

Which AED is associated with increased aggression, especially in children?

Levetiracetam (Keppra)

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41

What drug?

  • anticonvulsant- treats seizures & migraine prevention

  • adjust for for renal

  • SE: impaired concentration

Topiramate (Topamax)

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42

What is the MOA of Topiramate (Topamax)?

block Na channels, enhance GABA, antagonize AMPA/Kainate

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor - induce mild metabolic acidosis (increase seizure threshold

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43

What drug?

  • AED- targets Na channels & binds CRMP-2 (prevents hyperexcitability)

  • C-V

  • SE: inc PR interval, HA, ataxia, N/V

Lacosamide (Vimpat)

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44

What is a treatment algorithm for status epilepticus?

immediate- secure airway, circulation, protect from injury

early 0-10 min- IV lorazepam, Diazepam PR, Midazolam IN

if unresponsive- phenytoin or fosphenytoin

if unresponsive- Levetiracetam or phenobarbital

if unresponsive- VPA or additional phenobarbital

if unresponsive - general anesthesia or pentobarbital coma

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45

When can a patient stop AED therapy?

seizure free 2-5 yrs on AEDs

single seizure type

normal neuro exam / no brain lesions

normal EEG after treatment

*withdraw slowly, esp benzodiazepines & barbiturates

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46

What are the most common reactions to epileptic treatment?

sedation, dizziness, blurred vision, difficulty concentrating, ataxia (fall risk!)

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47

What AEDs cause less drowsiness than other agents?

Lamotrigine & VPA

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48

What drug is rarely used in school aged children due to interference with learning?

phenobarbital

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49

What would not be a good AED drug to prescribe in a patient with a history of mental illness due to psychosis & suicide attempts observed in clinical trials?

Levetiracetam

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50

What drugs have a a risk of SJS/TEN and should be discontinued immediately with any sign of a rash?
(*test Q)

Oxcarbazepine & lamotrigine

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51

What drug causes aplastic anemia and is reserved for refractory seizure activity?

Felbamate

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52

What drugs should be routinely monitored with CBCs and for sx such as fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, unusual bleeding/bruising due to possible ADRs such as agranulocytosis, leukopenia, neutropenia, etc?

carbamazepine, felbamate, VPA, phenytoin

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53

What drugs can cause hepatitis / hepatic failure and should be routinely monitored w/ CBCs & LFTS?

carbamazepine, felbamate, phenytoin, VPA (worst one; MC under 2 y/o)

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54

Which AEDs require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)?

carbamazepine, phenobarbital, VPA, phenytoin

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55

What forms of birth control are not affected by AEDs?

depo shots & IUDs

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56

What AEDs decrease the effectiveness of OCs?

phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, felbamate

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57

What condition is a slowly progressive neurodegenerative disorder caused by too little dopamine & has 4 cardinal features: tremor, rigidity, hypokinesia, & postural instability?

Parkinson’s Disease (PD)

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58

What are 2 main targets for treatment of Parkinson’s?

COMT- metabolizes L DOPA

MOA-B- breaks down dopamine

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59

What can be used as a diagnostic test for Parkinson’s?

response to levodopa or apomorphine

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60

What treatments can be used for early, uncomplicated PD?

Neuroprotection: MAO-B inhibitors, DA agonists

Sx: anticholinergics, MAO-B inhibitors, COMT inhibitors, DA agonists (Ergot & non ergot), DA precursors

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61

What class of drugs irreversibly inhibits MAO-B to reduce metabolism of DA to decrease radical formation/oxidative stress (neuroprotective)?

MAO-B inhibitors

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62

What drugs are MAO-B inhibitors?

Selegiline & Rasagiline

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63

What drug?

  • MAO-B inhibitor

  • treats early PD, delays need for levodopa

  • metabolized to amphetamine derivatives, shows positive on drug screen

  • SEs: orthostatic hypotension (fall risk), serotonin syndrome, agitation, insomnia, hallucinations

Selegiline (Eldepryl, Zelapar)

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64

What drug?

  • MAO-B inhibitor

  • reduces functional decline of PD

  • not metabolized to amphetamine derivates, fewer SE

  • risk for serotonin syndrome

Rasagiline (Azilect)

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65

What do both MOA-B inhibitors present a risk for?

serotonin syndrome

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66

What foods should be avoided with MOA-B inhibitors due to risk of tyramine reaction?

Fava beans, aged cheeses, red wine, sausage, salami, etc

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67

What drugs?

  • used for sx tx in early PD w/ minimal hypokinesia

  • blocks Ach in SNc → dec tremor

  • avoid in patients w/ cognitive impairment; not great for elderly

  • SE: dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, etc

  • reduce gradually due to rebound sx

Anticholinergics

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68

What drug?

  • Unclear MOA- amphetamine like action to release DA, anticholinergic, NMDA antagonist

  • used as mono or combo tx in early mild PD → can help manage levodopa induced dyskinesia

  • reduce in renal impairment

  • se: dizziness, anxiety, insomnia, N, V, anticholinergic

  • can develop tolerance

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

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69

What drugs may be used as first line monotherapy for PD but are not as effective as cabidopa/levodopa?

Dopamine agonists (ergot & non ergot derivatives)

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70

What class of drugs is Bromocriptine (Parlodel)?

Ergot derivative

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71

What drugs are non-ergot derivatives?

Pramipexole (Mirapex)

Ropinirole (Requip)

Rotigotine (Neupro) - transdermal patch

Apomorphine (Apokyn) - SQ

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72

What are possible SEs of ergot derivatives?

pleuro/retroperitoneal fibrosis and valve regurgitation

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73

What drug?

  • most effective tx for sx of PD; eventually all pt’s require

  • crosses BBB

  • SE: N, V, orthostatic hypotension, hallucinations, insomnia, somnolence, depression

Levodopa / Carbidopa (Sinemet)

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74

What can affect the absorption of levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet)?

amino acids (compete for absorption; not absorbed as well if taken at same time as proteins)

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75

What forms does Levodopa/Carbidopa come in?

Sinemet, Sinemet CR, Parcopa (ODT)

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76

What should be given along with levodopa to prolong conversion to DA and allow levodopa to act centrally while reducing AE?

Carbidopa

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77

What drug lengthens the half life of levodopa/carbidopa when given in combo?

Entacapone

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78

What drugs?

  • inc central levodopa & prolong half-life by prevent breakdown through inhibiting peripheral COMT

  • only as adjunct w/ levodopa/carbidopa (reduce l-dopa by 25%)

  • contraindication: MOA-AIs

COMT inhibitors

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79

What SE is seen with COMT inhibitors?

urine discoloration (brown/orange)

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80

What drugs are COMT inhibitors?

Tolcapone (Tasmar)

Entacopone (Comtan)

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81

What is the black box warning for Tolcapone (Tasmar)?

hepatotoxicity - monitor LFTs

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82

treatment algorithm for parkinsons

<p></p>
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83

What drug is associated with a “honeymoon” that works great at first and then loses it’s effect?

L-dopa

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84

What are the refractory sx of PD (dysarthria, dysphagia, freezing) treated with?

levodopa oral soln, apomorphine, surgery, PT

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85

What drugs can be added to PD treatment when the medications start wearing off due to loss of presynaptic neurons?

entacapone, DA agonist, MAO-B inhibitor, apomorphine injections, duodenal L dopa infusions

administer Sinemet more frequently or switch to oral soln or sinemet CR

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86

What can be added to PD treatment for “off” dystonia?

DA agonist, rotigotine, botox

add bedtime dose of sinemet CR & take first thing in the morning

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87

What can be added to treatment for PD if meds unpredictably wear on-off?

DA agonist or try a different one, MOA-Bi, COMTi, protein redistribution (separate meals), sinemet oral soln, apomorphine injections, continuous duodenal l dopa infusion

*trial and error

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88

How can PD treatment be modified for dyskinesias associated with peak dose or “on” (too much DA/too much effect)?

lower sinemet dose or discontinue agents that potentiate L dopa (COMTi / MAO-Bi)

add DA agonist, amantadine, clozapine, or propranolol

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89

How can PD treatment be modified for biphasic dyskinesias?

short dosing interval to produce over lapping of effects; add DA agonist; switch to CR

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90

What condition is the progressive loss of hippocampus and cortical cholinergic neurons associated with memory and cognition?

Alzheimer’s Disease (AD)

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91

What drugs?

  • treat mild-mod AD by preventing breakdown of post synaptic Ach to enhance cholinergic transmission (helps improve memory and cognition)

  • SE: cholinergic toxidrome- DUMBBBELS

Cholinesterase inhibitors (ChEI)

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92

What drugs are cholinesterase inhibitors?

Donepezil (Aricept)

Rivastigmine (Exelon)

Galantamine (Razadyne)

Tacrine

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93

What drug?

  • cholinesterase inhibitor specific for AChE over BuChE

  • high plasma protein binding & long half life (70 h)

  • CYP interactions (ketoconazole, quinidine)

  • reduced response in long term use

Donepezil (Aricept)

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94

What drug?

  • cholinesterase inhibitor for both AChE & BuChE

  • short plasma half life (1-1.5 hr) but covalently binds ChE to stick around longer

  • twice daily dosing

  • sustained effect in long term use

Rivastigmine (Exelon)

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95

What drug?

  • cholinesterase inhibitor very specific for AChE

  • moderate half life (7h); twice daily dosing

  • reduced response in long term use

  • CYP drug interactions

Galantamine (Razadyne)

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96

What drug?

  • NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist - prevents Ca entry = less stress & reduced excitatory activity

  • tx mod-severe AD

  • well tolerated; improve cognitive function & daily activities

  • long half life; minimal drug interactions

Memantine (Namenda)

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97

What condition is an inflammatory/demyelination disease of the CNS producing progressive neurological symptoms and plaques/sclerosed areas?

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

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98

What are the 3 categories of treatment for MS?

exacerbations - shorten duration & lessen severity

disease modifying therapy (DMT)

symptom management

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99

How are MS exacerbations managed?

IV methylprednisolone w/in 2 wks of sx onset

Plasma exchange if severe

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100

DMTs reduce relapse rates & white matter lesions in MS, but how long does it take to have an effect on symptoms in MS patients?

1-2 yrs

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