Chapter 12, Vander's Physiology

Which of the following is NOT primarily a function of blood plasma?

A) Transport of hormones

B) Being in osmotic balance with red blood cells

C) Having plasma proteins that exert an osmotic pressure favoring fluid absorption into the

capillaries

D) Providing clotting factors that are ready to be activated

E) Transport of oxygen

E) Transport of oxygen

What is the term that describes the production of red blood cells?

A) Hemaglutination

B) Erythrocytosis

C) Erythropoiesis

D) Erythroblastosis

E) Hemostasis

C) Erythropoiesis

Which is TRUE about the condition anemia?

A) It can be caused by too little iron in the diet.

B) It can be caused by kidney failure.

C) It can be caused by abnormal hemoglobin.

D) It results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

E) All of the answers are true.

E) All of the answers are true.

A female has a blood test. One mL of her blood is drawn, spun in a centrifuge, and the plasma 400 volume is measured and found to be 0.6 mL. Two months later the same patient returns to the doctor and, after doing another blood test, the doctor tells the patient that she has become anemic compared to her previous visit. Which of the following is most likely to be the woman's hematocrit on the second visit?

A) 35%

B) 50%

C) 70%

D) 100%

E) 0.6 mL

A) 35%

A male patient complains of physical weakness and fatigue. A blood test shows his hematocrit to be 30%. Which of the following diagnoses is the least likely to explain his symptoms?

A) Internal bleeding

B) Dietary iron deficiency

C) Dietary vitamin B12 deficiency

D) Lung disease

E) Kidney disease

D) Lung disease

Where is most of the iron in a person's body located?

A) In the bone marrow

B) In the liver

C) In the cytochromes

D) In erythrocytes

E) In the kidneys

D) In erythrocytes

You have a patient who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following supplements should she take to improve her symptoms?

A) Iron

B) Vitamin B12

C) Vitamin E

D) Vitamin D

E) Bilirubin

B) Vitamin B12

Consider the equation F = ΔP/R. It describes the flow (F) of fluid in a tube in which there is a pressure difference (ΔP) between the two ends and a resistance (R) to flow. Based on this equation, which is a correct conclusion?

A) The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.

B) The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while

the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.

C) The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure

difference.

D) If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.

E) The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.

B) The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while

the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.

Which of the following changes would most increase the resistance to blood flow in a blood vessel?

A) Halving the diameter of the vessel

B) Doubling the diameter of the vessel

C) Halving the length of the vessel

D) Doubling the length of the vessel

E) Decreasing the hematocrit from 50% to 40%

A) Halving the diameter of the vessel

Action potentials in the heart spread from cell to cell through

A) desmosomes.

B) gap junctions.

C) interneurons.

D) valves.

E) coronary vessels.

B) gap junctions.

Elizabeth had heart surgery to repair the pacemaker of her heart. Into which structure did the surgeon need access?

A) Sinoatrial node

B) Atrioventricular node

C) Mitral valve

D) Bundle of His

E) Left ventricle

A) Sinoatrial node

Which is correct about the contraction sequence of the heart?

A) The contraction and relaxation of all four chambers happen at the same time.

B) The right atrium and ventricle contract at the same time, and as they are relaxing, the left

atrium and left ventricle begin to contract.

C) Contraction begins in the order: right atrium, then right ventricle, then left atrium, then left

ventricle.

D) The two atria contract at the same time, and as they are relaxing, the two ventricles contract

together.

E) The atria and ventricles begin their contractions at the exact same time, but the atrial

contraction only lasts half as long as the ventricle contraction.

D) The two atria contract at the same time, and as they are relaxing, the two ventricles contract

together.

Which of the following statements concerning the differences between action potentials in skeletal muscle cells and in ventricular cardiac muscle cells is TRUE?

A) Like skeletal muscle cells, ventricular cardiac muscle cells have a resting membrane potential

closer to the sodium equilibrium potential than to the potassium equilibrium potential.

B) Unlike skeletal muscle cells, the initial depolarization of ventricular cells is mainly due to

calcium influx, not sodium influx.

C) After sodium influx through voltage-gated channels occurs in ventricular cells,

prolonged influx of calcium from the extracellular fluid occurs. No such calcium influx occurs in

skeletal muscle cells.

D) Action potentials in skeletal muscle cells are longer in duration than action potentials in

cardiac muscle cells.

E) The efflux of K+ repolarizes skeletal muscle cells after an action potential, while

repolarization in cardiac muscle cel

C) After sodium influx through voltage-gated channels occurs in ventricular cells,

prolonged influx of calcium from the extracellular fluid occurs. No such calcium influx occurs in

skeletal muscle cells.

You are a synthetic chemist and have created a compound that appears to bind to acetylcholine receptors. When applied to the inside of the right atrium, what will the affect be?

A) Increased force of atrial contraction

B) Decreased force of atrial contraction

C) Decreased heart rate

D) Increased heart rate

E) No effects on heart function

C) Decreased heart rate

The plateau of the action potential in cardiac ventricular cells results from the opening of voltage-gated long-lasting ________ channels in the plasma membrane of the cell.

A) Na+

B) K+

C) Ca2+

D) Cl-

E) glucose

C) Ca2+

Which of the following statements about membrane potentials in different types of cardiac cells is TRUE?

A) Myocardial cells have a resting membrane potential of about -90 mV; pacemaker cells do not

have a true resting membrane potential.

B) Once threshold depolarization is reached in both myocardial and pacemaker cells, the rapid

upswing of the action potential is caused by the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels

C) Voltage-gated transient (T-type) Ca2+ channels are present in all of the different types of cells

of the heart.

D) There are no L-type Ca2+ channels in cardiac muscle cells.

E) The upstroke of the action potential is steeper in SA node cells than it is in Purkinje cells.

A) Myocardial cells have a resting membrane potential of about -90 mV; pacemaker cells do not

have a true resting membrane potential.

You are learning to read electrocardiograms. You know that the patient you are examining has a pathology affecting the depolarization of his ventricles, therefore you're looking for a change in what portion of his EKG?

A) The P wave

B) The T wave

C) The QRS complex

D) "The P wave" or "The T wave" but not "The QRS complex".

E) None of these would be altered

C) The QRS complex

Which of the following would be most likely to be determined with a patient's ECG recording?

A) A heart murmur

B) Stroke volume

C) Cardiac output

D) Blockage of conduction of electrical signals between the atria and the ventricles

E) A leaky atrioventricular valve

D) Blockage of conduction of electrical signals between the atria and the ventricles

Which is TRUE about the comparison of excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle with that in skeletal muscle?

A) Extracellular Ca2+ plays a major role in cardiac but not skeletal muscle.

B) The mechanism for Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is the same in both types of

muscle.

C) Troponin sites are completely saturated immediately after Ca2+ release in both types of

muscle.

D) There is no net change in total intracellular Ca2+ concentration in either muscle.

E) Intracellular Ca2+ stores are necessary for contraction in skeletal muscle, but not in cardiac

muscle.

A) Extracellular Ca2+ plays a major role in cardiac but not skeletal muscle.

You and your lab partner are doing an experiment in physiology lab. Each of you has an isolated muscle cell and you are supposed to stimulate it with an electrode as soon as its absolute refractory period ends. You're watching an electromyograph tracing to know when to use the electrode. Your partner has a cardiac muscle cell and you have a skeletal muscle cell. Which one

of you will use your electrode more times in one minute?

A) Your partner will use the electrode more times in a minute than you will.

B) You will use the electrode more times in a minute than your partner will.

C) You both will use the electrode the same number of times.

D) The number of times you will use the electrode in a minute cannot be determined by this

information alone.

B) You will use the electrode more times in a minute than your partner will.

Which of the following statements about the refractory period of neuronal or muscle membranes is TRUE?

A) In nerve cells, the absolute refractory period coincides with the period of increased K+

permeability.

B) In skeletal muscle cells, the absolute refractory period lasts about as long as the twitch.

C) In ventricular cells, the absolute refractory period coincides with the period of increased Na+

and Ca2+ permeability.

D) The relative refractory period in neuronal membranes lasts about the same length of time as

the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cell membranes.

E) The refractory period in an alpha-motor neuron membrane is much briefer than the refractory

period in a skeletal muscle cell membrane.

C) In ventricular cells, the absolute refractory period coincides with the period of increased Na+

and Ca2+ permeability.

Which of the following statements about the cardiac cycle is TRUE?

A) The duration of systole is greater than that of diastole in a subject at rest.

B) During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, blood flows from the atria into the ventricles.

C) Closure of the atrioventricular valves occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole.

D) The QRS complex occurs at approximately the same time as the closure of the semilunar

valves.

E) The first valves to go from closed to open after the atrial kick are the atrioventricular valves.

C) Closure of the atrioventricular valves occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole.

You and your colleague are medical technicians in a cardiac function lab. You are reading the ECG of a patient and your friend is trying to capture an image of the AV valves opening using an ultrasound. At what point should you tell your friend to start recording images?

A) Just before the P wave

B) Just after the P wave

C) At the beginning of the QRS complex

D) Just before the T wave

E) After the T wave

C) At the beginning of the QRS complex

During the cardiac cycle of an individual at rest

A) the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.

B) the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.

C) the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.

D) the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.

E) the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.

D) the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.

In a patient with an abnormally leaky aortic valve, what would you expect?

A) Some backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular diastole

B) Some backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole

C) Some backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular ejection

D) Some backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular ejection

E) Some backflow of blood into the left atrium during ventricular systole

B) Some backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole

Which occurs during isovolumetric ventricular contraction?

A) Rapid filling of the ventricles occurs.

B) No blood enters or leaves the ventricles.

C) The maximum volume of blood is ejected.

D) Ventricular pressure reaches its maximum value of the cardiac cycle.

E) The pressure in the ventricles decreases while the pressure in the atria increases.

B) No blood enters or leaves the ventricles.

What causes the opening and closing of the heart valves?

A) Stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves

B) A pressure difference on the two sides of the valve

C) Na+ and K+ fluxes during ventricular depolarization

D) Turbulent flow in the atria and ventricles

E) The action of the papillary muscles and chordae tendineae

B) A pressure difference on the two sides of the valve

You've just been told by your doctor that you have a heart murmur between the first and second heart sounds. You go home to search for more information on this condition on the Internet and find that you have

A) insufficiency of a semilunar valve or stenosis of an AV valve.

B) insufficiency of an AV valve or stenosis of a semilunar valve.

C) heart failure.

D) AV nodal conduction block.

E) a myocardial infarction.

B) insufficiency of an AV valve or stenosis of a semilunar valve.

Which best defines cardiac output?

A) The end-diastolic volume minus the end-systolic volume

B) The output of the aortic arch baroreceptors

C) The volume of blood in the arterial tree at any moment in time

D) The stroke volume divided by the heart rate

E) The product of the heart rate and the volume ejected from the ventricle during a cardiac cycle

E) The product of the heart rate and the volume ejected from the ventricle during a cardiac cycle

Sinoatrial node cells

A) reach threshold only when action potentials generated by the AV node arrive through gap

junctions.

B) exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their cholinergic receptors.

C) exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their beta-adrenergic

receptors.

D) exhibit a steep upstroke due to the presence of the same type of Na+ channels found in

neuronal membranes.

E) are between atrial muscle cells and cells of the bundle of His.

C) exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their beta-adrenergic

receptors.

Which is TRUE regarding the regulation of heart rate?

A) Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

B) Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.

C) A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person

with a normally innervated heart.

D) The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentials determines the heart

rate.

E) All of the choices are true.

E) All of the choices are true.

What is described by the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart?

A) The relationship between end-diastolic volume and heart rate

B) The relationship between end-systolic volume and stroke volume

C) The relationship between length and tension in cardiac muscle cells

D) The relationship between sympathetic stimulation and stroke volume

E) The relationship between arterial blood pressure and stroke volume

C) The relationship between length and tension in cardiac muscle cells

According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart

A) the left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole than the right ventricle.

B) the intrinsic rate of the heart's pacemaker is 100 beats/min.

C) cardiac output increases with increased heart rate.

D) stroke volume increases with increased venous return.

E) both ventricles contract simultaneously.

D) stroke volume increases with increased venous return.

During the course of a ride on a roller coaster, what would be FALSE regarding your heart?

A) An increase in heart rate

B) A decrease in the duration of systole

C) A decrease in the slope of the pacemaker potential

D) An increase in the amount of Ca2+ entering cardiac muscle cells

E) An increase in the rate of cross-bridge cycling in ventricular muscle cells

C) A decrease in the slope of the pacemaker potential

You are dissecting a species of amphibian that has just been discovered in the rainforest. You find a blood vessel where the blood travels at a low pressure and velocity. If the frog is in an upright position, blood flow through this vessel would also be against gravity. Anatomically, what do you expect of this blood vessel?

A) A high degree of compliance

B) A thick muscular wall

C) Large wall to lumen ratio

D) Valves that allow only one-way flow of blood

E) All of the answers are correct

D) Valves that allow only one-way flow of blood

Which of the following statements concerning regulation of blood flow is TRUE?

A) In the systemic circuit, increased levels of metabolic waste products and decreased oxygen

concentration in tissues promote hyperemia through the tissues.

B) If blood flow to a tissue is blocked for a period of time and then the block is removed, the

result is a reactive hyperemia in which blood flow through the affected tissue remains low.

C) According to flow autoregulation, if blood pressure to an arteriole is decreased, blood flow

will not return toward its original level until the original blood pressure is restored.

D) In the systemic circuit, high levels of CO2 and metabolites tend to cause contraction in the

smooth muscle of arteriole walls.

E) The resistance to blood flow in brain and heart vascular beds does not vary in response to

changes in local gas or metabolite concentrations.

A) In the systemic circuit, increased levels of metabolic waste products and decreased oxygen

concentration in tissues promote hyperemia through the tissues.

You've been sitting cross-legged on the floor of your dorm room while studying. As you stand up to go get a snack, you realize that you've lost feeling in one of your feet. A minute later, all feeling is restored. Being a physiology student, you understand that blood flow was occluded during the time that you were sitting, and that blood flow was restored as you stood up. What else is TRUE?

A) The decreased oxygen content of the foot tissues and the increased levels of metabolic wastes

both acted as vasodilators, increasing the flow of blood through the tissues upon standing.

B) As you stood, vasoconstriction occurred in the foot's blood vessels to protect them from

shock.

C) High levels of built up CO2 acted as vasoconstrictors in the foot's blood vessels.

D) The resistance of the blood vessels did not change from sitting to standing, but gravity helped

in blood flow.

E) All of these are true.

A) The decreased oxygen content of the foot tissues and the increased levels of metabolic wastes

both acted as vasodilators, increasing the flow of blood through the tissues upon standing.

In the systemic circuit, which of these best describes active hyperemia?

A) Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction

B) Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation

C) Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction

D) Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation

E) Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues

B) Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation

Which of the following statements concerning control of blood flow through arterioles is TRUE?

A) Beta-adrenergic receptors are more abundant on most arteriolar smooth muscle than are

alpha-adrenergic receptors.

B) Binding of epinephrine to alpha-adrenergic receptors causes vasodilation.

C) Increased stimulation of vascular smooth muscle by the parasympathetic nervous system

causes increased vasoconstriction.

D) If the arterial blood pressure to an organ suddenly decreases, arterioles in the organ will dilate

in response.

E) Body-wide constriction of arterioles results in a decrease in the total peripheral resistance

(TPR).

D) If the arterial blood pressure to an organ suddenly decreases, arterioles in the organ will dilate

in response.

Blood flow through most organs in the systemic circuit is regulated primarily by increasing or decreasing the ________ activity to arteriolar smooth muscles in the organ. Another form of regulation, called ________, depends upon the metabolic activity of the organ. Increased activity

leads to increased interstitial fluid metabolites, which cause ________ of the arterioles. The former is a type of ________ regulation of blood flow; the latter is an example of ________

regulation.

A) sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

B) sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic

C) parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic

D) sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic

E) parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

A) sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

If the arterial blood pressure in the brain is suddenly decreased, the flow through arterioles in the brain will immediately fall and then which of these will occur next?

A) Brain arterioles will constrict to accelerate blood flow through the brain capillaries.

B) Brain arterioles will dilate due to a decrease in levels of CO2.

C) Blood flow will remain at the new, lower level due to reactive hyperemia.

D) Blood flow will rise to levels above normal due to excess O2 levels.

E) Blood flow will return toward its original level due to flow autoregulation.

E) Blood flow will return toward its original level due to flow autoregulation.

Normally, the hydrostatic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid favors movement of fluid ________ a tissue capillary. The protein osmotic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid normally favors movement of fluid ________ a

tissue capillary.

A) into; into

B) into; out of

C) out of; out of

D) out of; into

D) out of; into

In a patient with decreased production of plasma proteins, which of the following would be TRUE?

A) More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure.

B) Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure.

C) More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure.

D) Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure.

A) More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure.

Which of the following statements concerning the capillaries is FALSE?

A) Increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure decreases the likelihood that filtration will occur.

B) Velocity of blood flow is slower in the capillaries than in the arteries.

C) It is possible for a capillary to filter fluid at its arterial end and absorb fluid at its venous end.

D) Large capillary pores are more likely to be found in liver capillaries than in brain capillaries.

E) Large proteins that escape capillaries and enter the interstitial fluid are returned to the

circulation via the lymphatic system.

A) Increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure decreases the likelihood that filtration will occur.

Which of the following correctly compares the factors involved in bulk flow of fluid in systemic and pulmonary capillaries?

A) The protein oncotic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly greater.

B) There are no lymphatic vessels to remove fluid from lung interstitial fluid.

C) The hydrostatic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly lower.

D) The protein oncotic pressure is lower in pulmonary interstitial fluid than in typical systemic

interstitial fluid.

E) The Starling's forces overwhelmingly favor reabsorption all along the length of pulmonary

capillaries.

C) The hydrostatic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly lower.

A patient comes in to your office with dramatically high blood pressure. Which of the following symptoms might turn up in your exam?

A) Tissue swelling due to increased fluid leaving the capillaries

B) Skin bruising due to blood leaving the capillaries

C) Rapid breathing due to increased need for oxygen

D) Lethargy

E) None of these

A) Tissue swelling due to increased fluid leaving the capillaries

You have a patient who is showing signs of edema (tissue swelling) all over his body. In addition to visible swelling in his hands, feet, and face, you can also see evidence of swelling around his organs when viewing his CAT scan images. Thinking about what you know about the factors that regulate fluid flow from the blood vessels. Which of the following causes of edema

seem most likely?

A) Low red and white blood cell counts due to cancer in the bone marrow

B) Low plasma protein concentration due to liver failure

C) High blood solute concentration due to kidney failure

D) Low blood pressure due to severe dehydration

B) Low plasma protein concentration due to liver failure

Distinguishing characteristics of veins include which of the following?

A) All veins carry deoxygenated blood.

B) All veins carry blood toward the heart.

C) All veins have thick, elastic walls.

D) Veins have walls consisting only of endothelial cells.

E) All veins have valves to ensure one-way movement of blood.

B) All veins carry blood toward the heart.

What determines the movement of blood in systemic veins?

A) The blood pressure difference between systemic capillaries and the right atrium

B) The contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscles

C) The decrease of thoracic pressure and increase of abdominal pressure due to diaphragm

movement

D) Valves in the veins

E) All of the these

E) All of the these

Sarah is resting in a chair for a long period of time; her calf and thigh muscles are totally relaxed. Next to her, Priya is also resting in a chair, but she is wiggling, kicking, tapping, and vibrating her legs; resulting in an pattern where her calf and thigh muscles are alternating between relaxed and contracted states. If all else is equal, who has the higher stroke volume,

Sarah or Priya?

A) Sarah has a higher stroke volume.

B) Priya has a higher stroke volume.

C) Sarah and Priya have the same stroke volume because they are both seated.

D) No significant difference in the stroke volume between Sarah and Priya can be predicted

based on this information.

B) Priya has a higher stroke volume.

Tina is a hard-working sales clerk in a busy department store. She has stood completely still behind the check-out counter for an 8-hour shift. At the end of Tina's shift she finds that she feels somewhat dizzy and guesses that her blood pressure is quite low. All of the following factors normally contribute to homeostatic blood pressure regulation. Which one is most likely contributing to her symptoms?

A) Decreased skeletal muscle pump

B) Increased activity of the pulmonary pump

C) Defective baroreceptor detection in the carotid artery

D) Increased sympathetic tone

E) All of these

A) Decreased skeletal muscle pump

Tina is a hard-working sales clerk in a busy department store. She has stood completely still behind the check-out counter for an 8-hour shift. At the end of Tina's shift, she finds that she feels somewhat dizzy and guesses that her blood pressure is quite low. When Tina gets home she also notices that her ankles are swollen. What physiological issue is most likely to blame in this

scenario?

A) Lymphatic blockage in her lower legs

B) High osmotic pressure in her lower leg capillaries

C) High hydrostatic pressure in lower leg capillaries

D) Reactive hyperemia to lower leg tissues

E) None of these, the swelling is unrelated to cardiovascular issues

C) High hydrostatic pressure in lower leg capillaries

Which of the following is a result of increased sympathetic stimulation of vascular smooth muscle?

A) Filtration of fluid from capillaries to interstitial fluid increases.

B) Total peripheral resistance (TPR) decreases.

C) The percentage of blood volume in the veins increases.

D) Blood flow to the brain decreases.

E) Venous return of blood to the heart increases.

E) Venous return of blood to the heart increases.

Sally has had too many alcoholic drinks. Alcohol is a systemic vasodilator and it increases urine volume, thereby decreasing blood volume. In order to maintain cardiac output, what can

her body do?

A) Decrease heart rate

B) Increase heart rate

C) Increase stroke volume

D) Decrease stroke volume

E) Increase total peripheral resistance (TPR)

B) Increase heart rate

Which of the following factors would NOT tend to increase systemic arterial blood pressure?

A) Increased sympathetic stimulation

B) Increased blood volume

C) Increased venous return

D) Increased parasympathetic stimulation

E) Increased activity of the skeletal muscle pump

D) Increased parasympathetic stimulation

After a long fever Carl finds himself sweating profusely. He ends up requiring several changes of clothing before his skin begins to dry off. After this sweating event, what can we

expect of Carl's physiological state?

A) An increase in blood volume

B) Hypotension

C) Decreased firing of the arterial baroreceptors

D) Increased stroke volume

E) All of these

B) Hypotension

Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be increased compared to pre-donation values?

A) Her stroke volume and total peripheral resistance

B) Her heart rate and total peripheral resistance

C) Her heart rate and mean arterial pressure

D) The percentage of her cardiac output flowing to her kidneys

E) The blood flow to her brain

B) Her heart rate and total peripheral resistance

Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be decreased compared to pre-donation values?

A) Her stroke volume and total peripheral resistance

B) Her heart rate and total peripheral resistance

C) Her heart rate and mean arterial pressure

D) The percentage of her cardiac output flowing to her kidneys

E) Blood flow to her brain

D) The percentage of her cardiac output flowing to her kidneys

Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be increased compared to pre-donation values?

A) Heart rate

B) Stroke volume

C) Mean arterial pressure

D) Cardiac output

E) Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries

A) Heart rate

Following hemorrhage, reflexes are triggered that attempt to compensate for the blood loss. As a result of the blood loss and the reflex mechanisms, which of the following will be TRUE, compared to pre-hemorrhage values?

A) Both cardiac output and total peripheral resistance will be increased.

B) Both cardiac output and total peripheral resistance will be decreased.

C) Cardiac output will be increased and total peripheral resistance will be decreased.

D) Cardiac output will be decreased and total peripheral resistance will be increased.

E) Hematocrit will be increased.

D) Cardiac output will be decreased and total peripheral resistance will be increased.

How would a hemorrhage immediately affect the activity of the baroreceptors?

A) The baroreceptors would increase their rate of firing to all medullary cardiovascular center

cell types.

B) The baroreceptors would increase their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that

activate sympathetic pathways and decrease their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata

that activate parasympathetic pathways.

C) The baroreceptors would decrease their rate of firing to all medullary cardiovascular center

cell types.

D) The baroreceptors would decrease their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that

activate sympathetic pathways and increase their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata

that activate parasympathetic pathways.

E) A hemorrhage would not affect the activity of the baroreceptors.

C) The baroreceptors would decrease their rate of firing to all medullary cardiovascular center

cell types.

Which of the following is most likely to occur when a soldier stands at attention—very still, with legs and spine straight?

A) Decreased pressure in the capillaries of the feet

B) Increased absorption of interstitial fluid by the capillaries of the feet

C) Increased storage of blood in the veins of the feet and legs

D) Increased venous return

E) Increased blood flow to the brain

C) Increased storage of blood in the veins of the feet and legs

During exercise, there is a decreased flow of blood to

A) the brain.

B) the skin.

C) the abdominal organs.

D) the skeletal muscles

E) the heart.

C) the abdominal organs.

You just ate a huge, delicious breakfast and now are going to head out for your morning run.

As you try picking up the pace, you find running to be quite difficult because

A) blood flow to the abdominal organs is dominant.

B) stroke volume is decreased.

C) everywhere in the systemic circuit, blood vessels are constricted.

D) your heart rate is too high.

E) your mean arterial pressure is too high.

A) blood flow to the abdominal organs is dominant.

Which of the following does NOT contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?

A) Increased contractility of cardiac muscle

B) Increased venous return

C) Increased length of filling time during diastole

D) Increased sympathetic stimulation of ventricular muscle

E) Increased end-diastolic volume

C) Increased length of filling time during diastole

Which is the most likely effect of physical endurance training on a person's cardiac performance?

A) A decrease in cardiac output

B) An increase in maximal stroke volume

C) An increase in maximal heart rate

D) An increase in resting heart rate

E) An increase in cardiac output when the person is at rest

B) An increase in maximal stroke volume

Which of these correctly states differences between a trained athlete and a sedentary individual at rest?

A) The athlete would have a lower heart rate and larger stroke volume.

B) The athlete would have a higher heart rate and larger stroke volume.

C) The athlete would have a lower heart rate and smaller stroke volume.

D) The athlete would have a higher heart rate and smaller stroke volume.

E) There would be no differences when the individuals were at rest.

A) The athlete would have a lower heart rate and larger stroke volume.

Which of the following does NOT describe hypertension? Hypertension

A) refers to a chronic state of elevated blood pressure.

B) is usually defined as a systolic pressure greater than 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure

greater than 90 mmHg.

C) is usually a result of chronically elevated cardiac output.

D) may be caused by kidney disease.

E) can sometimes be treated with drugs that increase excretion of water in the urine.

C) is usually a result of chronically elevated cardiac output.

Arterial systolic pressure occurs ________ while arterial diastolic pressure occurs ________.

A) at the same time as closure of the semilunar valves; at the same time as closure of the

atrioventricular valves

B) during the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle; during the isovolumetric

relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle

C) at the same time as the P-wave of the electrocardiogram; at the same time as the T-wave of

the electrocardiogram

D) when the ventricle reaches end-systolic volume; when the ventricle reaches end-diastolic

volume

E) during the middle of the phase of ventricular ejection; just before the semilunar valve opens

E) during the middle of the phase of ventricular ejection; just before the semilunar valve opens

Which of the following drugs might be prescribed to alleviate hypertension?

A) Alpha-adrenergic receptor agonists

B) Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists

C) Cholinergic antagonist

D) A drug that increases L-type Ca2+ channel currents

E) A drug that increases T-type Ca2+ channel currents

B) Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists

Which of the drug treatments listed below is INCORRECTLY matched to a mode of action in treating hypertension?

A) Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers—reduce TPR by decreased stimulation of arteriolar

smooth muscle

B) Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists—reduce cardiac output by slowing heart rate and

reducing contractility

C) Antagonists of parasympathetic receptors—reduce TPR by decreased stimulation of arteriolar

smooth muscle

D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors—reduce TPR by reducing angiotensin II

concentrations

E) Diuretics—reduce blood volume by increasing excretion of sodium and water in urine

F) Calcium channel blockers—reduce speed and force of contraction in vascular smooth muscle

G) ACE inhibitors—lowers peripheral resistance by promoting vasodilation

C) Antagonists of parasympathetic receptors—reduce TPR by decreased stimulation of arteriolar

smooth muscle

Atherosclerosis is

A) the major cause of heart attacks.

B) a thinning in the walls of arteries.

C) associated with low blood levels of cholesterol and heavy exercise.

D) a disease in which the walls of arteries become more compliant.

E) more common in younger people than in older people.

A) the major cause of heart attacks.

What is hemostasis?

A) The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment

B) The prevention or stoppage of blood loss

C) A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired

D) A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity

E) The set point for normal arterial blood pressure

B) The prevention or stoppage of blood loss

Which of the following occurs first in hemostasis?

A) Activation of the fibrinolytic system

B) Platelet aggregation

C) A clotting cascade that leads to the conversion of fibrinogen to stable fibrin

D) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

E) Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

B) Platelet aggregation

Platelets participate in hemostasis by

A) aggregating to form a plug and manufacturing fibrinogen.

B) secreting nitric oxide and releasing chemicals that promote vasoconstriction.

C) secreting prostacyclin, which prevents platelet aggregation on blood vessel endothelium.

D) aggregating to form a plug and releasing chemicals that promote vasoconstriction.

E) secreting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) whenever they come into contact with collagen.

D) aggregating to form a plug and releasing chemicals that promote vasoconstriction.

Which is an intermediary protein that enables platelets to adhere to collagen?

A) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

B) ATP

C) von Willebrand factor (vWF)

D) Arachidonic acid

E) Activated protein C

C) von Willebrand factor (vWF)

In a patient with a mutation that causes an inactive von Willebrand factor (vWF), which of

the following would be TRUE?

A) Platelets will not adhere to collagen.

B) Fibrinogen cannot polymerize.

C) Thrombin will never be activated.

D) Clots will be stronger than typical.

E) None of the answers will be true.

A) Platelets will not adhere to collagen.

Which of the following statements regarding blood clotting is TRUE?

A) Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.

B) Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.

C) A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.

D) Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.

E) Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood

clotting.

A) Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.

Which of the following statements about blood clotting is FALSE?

A) It is the formation of a thrombus.

B) It occurs after formation of a platelet plug in a damaged vessel.

C) It requires the presence of erythrocytes.

D) It is a result of a cascade of enzyme activation.

E) It involves positive feedback by thrombin.

C) It requires the presence of erythrocytes.

Which of the following statements regarding the dissolving of blood clots is FALSE?

A) Activation of the reactions that lead to blood clotting ultimately lead to blood clot dissolution.

B) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is secreted by endothelial cells.

C) Blood clots are digested by plasmin.

D) Plasminogen is an inactive precursor of the enzyme plasmin.

E) It involves aggregation of soluble fibrin fragments into fibrin.

E) It involves aggregation of soluble fibrin fragments into fibrin.

Which of the following is NOT an anticoagulant or stimulator of blood clot dissolution?

A) Vitamin K

B) Aspirin

C) Thrombin

D) Heparin

E) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

A) Vitamin K

Which correctly describes functions of protein C?

A) It activates platelets and converts prothrombin to thrombin.

B) It activates clotting factor XII and platelets.

C) It binds to tissue factor and activates clotting factor VII.

D) It inactivates thrombin and converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

E) It inhibits clot formation and inactivates factors Va and VIIIa.

E) It inhibits clot formation and inactivates factors Va and VIIIa.

True or False

Blood loss is likely to stimulate the secretion of higher than normal plasma levels of erythropoietin.

True

True or False

After physical conditioning at a high altitude, the blood levels of oxygen have been frequently low. In response, the kidneys are secreting higher than normal levels of erythropoietin.

True

True or False

The primary stimulus for erythropoietin secretion is decreased iron concentrations in the liver.

False

True or False

All blood vessels that carry well-oxygenated blood are called arteries.

False

True or False

At rest, more blood flows per minute to the kidneys and abdominal organs than to the muscles and skin.

True

True or False

At rest, more blood flows to the skin and abdominal organs than to the lungs.

False

True or False

The myocardial cells receive their blood supply from the coronary arteries that branch off from the aorta.

True

True or False

An obstruction in one of the coronary arteries would compromise the ability of the myocardial cells to undergo cellular respiration.

True

True or False

A major difference between cardiac muscle cells and the cells in the cardiac conducting system is that the contractile cells do not undergo spontaneous depolarization.

True

True or False

The sinoatrial node is normally the heart's pacemaker because it has the fastest spontaneous rate of diastolic depolarization.

True

True or False

The wave of ventricular contraction starts at the apex of the heart and travels up toward the base.

True

True or False

An ectopic pacemaker is an area of the myocardial conducting system, other than the atrioventricular node, that initiates cardiac depolarization.

False

True or False

The QRS wave of the ECG corresponds to depolarization of the atria.

False

True or False

An electrocardiogram would be definitive for diagnosing diseases involving the valves of the heart.

False

True or False

Your doctor has determined that you have a leaky right atrioventricular valve. This defect will be detected by an ECG.

False

True or False

Cardiac muscle cannot undergo tetanus because its absolute refractory period lasts almost as long as the muscle twitch.

True

True or False

Sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle cells produces stronger and faster contractions because proteins that pump Ca2+ out of the cell are inhibited, which reduces Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm.

False

True or False

Parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine onto cells in the atria of the heart, but not onto cells of the ventricles.

True