Final A&P Lab study #2

Blood consists of ___ and ___.

Plasma and formed elements

What percentage of plasma is in blood composition?

55%

What percentage of Formed elements is in blood composition?

45%

What is the composition of the Formed elements?

Erythrocytes (RBC), Leukocytes (WBC), and platelets

What are the major functions of the Erythrocytes (RBC)?

Transports Oxygen, Transports Carbon Dioxide, Maintains Acid-base balance

What is the oxygen carrying protein inside of RBCs?

Hemoglobin

Hemoglobin is composed of ____.

4 protein subunits

Each hemoglobin subunit contains a _________.

Heme group with iron.

Each hemoglobin molecule binds to ________.

4 oxygen molecules

Hemoglobin makes up about _____ of the RBC volume.

One third

Oxyhemoglobin’s color is what?

Bright Red

Deoxyhemoglobin’s color is what?

Dark Red

The percentage of blood volume made up of RBC’s is _____?

Hematocrit

What percentage of Hematocrit is in an adult male?

45%

What percentage of Hematocrit is in an adult female?

40%

Males typically have slightly _______ hematocrit than females.

Higher

What evaluates the cellular components of blood?

A complete blood count (CBC)

What does the CBC measure?

Red Blood cell count, White blood cell count, Hemoglobin concentration, Hematocrit, and Differential WBC count.

Does a CBC directly measure the percentages of each white blood cell type without a differential?

No, it does not.

White Blood cells (WBC) are called what?

Leukocytes

What is the purpose of a WBC (leukocytes)?

It protects the body from infection

What are the two categories of Leukocytes?

Granulocytes and Agranulocytes

What are Granulocytes cells?

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

What Agranulocytes are cells?

Lymphocytes and monocytes

What is the most abundant white blood cell?

Neutrophils

Neutrophils cells are the _______ to infection?

first responders

Are neutrophils phagocytic (meaning they consume)?

Yes

What is the normal percentage range for neutrophils in a WBC differential?

50-70%

What are common causes of elevated neutrophils?

Bacterial Infection, stress, trauma, and inflammation

What are the main functions of eosinophils?

Destroy parasites, participate in allergic reactions, and release enzymes to degrade pathogens

Which white blood cell is especially important in destroying parasites?

Eosinophils

Eosinophils are commonly involved in dealing with _______ Reactions?

Allergy

What do eosinophils release to help break down pathogens?

Enzymes

What is the normal percentage range for eosinophils in a WBC differential?

1-3%

Do eosinophils produce antibodies?

No antibodies are produced by eosinophils

Which WBC is the largest?

Monocytes

How much do monocytes make up of Leukocytes?

3-9%

What do monocytes become when they enter tissues?

Macrophages

What is the main function of monocytes?

They become phagocytes

Are monocytes granulocytes or agranulocytes?

Agranulocytes

What type of action do monocytes perform as phagocytes?

They engulf and digest pathogens and debris

What are the types of lymphocytes?

B cells, T cells, and Natural Killer Cells

What is the normal percentage range for lymphocytes in a WBC differential?

20–40%.

What does a lymphocyte percentage of 10% suggest?

Lymphocyte deficiency or elevated levels of another WBC type.

Which white blood cells include B cells, T cells, and Natural Killer cells?

Lymphocyte

What is the process that stops bleeding?

Hemostasis

What are the stages in Hemostasis?

Vascular Spasm, Platelet Plug Formation, Coagulation (clotting)

Which stage of hemostasis involves constriction of the blood vessel?

Vascular spasm

Which stage of hemostasis involves platelets sticking together?

Platelet Plug formation

Which stage of hemostasis produces the fibrin clot?

Coagulation

What is the final step of coagulation?

Fibrinogen is converted into Fibrin

What does fibrin form during clotting?

A stable clot mesh.

Why is fibrin important in hemostasis?

It forms the stable mesh that strengthens the clot.

The antigens present on the red blood cell membranes determine what?

The Blood type

Which blood type has A antigens and anti-B antibodies?

Type A

Which blood type has both A and B antigens and no antibodies?

Type AB

Which blood type has no A or B antigens but has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies?

Type O

Which blood type has B antigens and anti-A antibodies?

Type B

What antibodies are found in type A blood?

Anti-B antibodies

What antibodies are found in type AB blood?

None

What antibodies are found in type B blood?

Anti-A antibodies

What antibodies are found in type O blood?

Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies

What does the Rh blood type depend on?

The presence or absence of the D antigen

What does Rh positive mean?

Rh+ present (antigen)

What does Rh negative mean?

Rh antigen is absent

Which antigen determines whether blood is Rh+ or Rh-?

D antigen

What is used to detect Rh antigens?

Anti D serum

Do Rh-negative individuals initially have anti-Rh antibodies?

No

When do Rh-negative individuals develop anti-Rh antibodies?

After exposure to Rh-positive blood.

What happens if an A- person receives A+ blood?

They will develop anti-Rh antibodies later

Will an A- person have an immediate reaction after first receiving A+ blood?

No immediate reaction

What is Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)?

A condition in which maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells.

When does Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn occur?

When the mother is Rh negative, the baby is Rh positive, and the mother has been previously exposed to Rh antigen

What maternal Rh type is associated with Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

Rh negative

What fetal Rh type is associated with Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

Rh positive

What previous maternal event is necessary for Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn to occur?

exposure to Rh antigen

What do maternal antibodies attack in Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

Fetal red blood cells

Why does Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn occur in an Rh-negative mother?

She develops antibodies after exposure to Rh antigen, and those antibodies can attack an Rh-positive fetus

What three conditions must be present for Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

Mother is Rh negative, baby is Rh positive, and mother was previously exposed to Rh antigen

How many chambers does the heart have?

4

What are the four chambers of the heart?

Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle

What is the function of the right atrium?

It receives deoxygenated blood

What is the function of the right ventricle?

It pumps blood into the lungs

What is the function of the left atrium?

It receives oxygenated blood

What is the function of the left ventricle?

It pumps blood to the body

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood?

The right atrium

Which heart chamber pumps blood to the lungs?

The right Ventricle

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood?

The left atrium

Which heart chamber pumps blood to the systemic circulation?

The left ventricle

What are Ear-shaped extensions of the atria?

Auricles

What is the function of the auricles?

They allow expansion during blood filling

Auricles are extensions of which chambers?

Atria

What are the atrioventricular (AV) valves?

The tricuspid valve and the mitral (bicuspid) valve

Which valve is the right AV valve?

The tricuspid valve

Which valve is the left AV valve?

The mitral valve, also called the bicuspid valve.

Where is the tricuspid valve located?

Between the right atrium and right ventricle

Where is the mitral valve located?

Between the left atrium and left ventricle

What is another name for the mitral valve?

The Bicuspid valve

What structures are attached to the atrioventricular valves?

Chordae tendineae and papillary muscles

What is the purpose of the chordae tendineae and papillary muscles?

Prevent valve prolapse during contraction