MTLE DAY 2: HEMA, ISBB, HTMLE

A. DOLE

The Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) is a three-man commission attached to:

A. DOLE

B. PHILHEALTH

C. CHED

D. Office of the President

Louis Pasteur

Father of Immunology

Edward Jenner

Performed first vaccination against smallpox by using cowpox

Ave: 7.2um

range: 6.8-7.5um

Diameter of a normal erythrocyte

Average:

Range:

(turgeon)

PVP-iodine or polymer iodine complex

Aseptic technique used for blood donor collection

4 cm

30 seconds

Blood donor collection:

Using a tourniquet or blood pressure cuff, the venipuncture site is identified, and the area is scrubbed at least __cm in all directions from the site for a minimum of ___ seconds.

(harmening)

B. acute myeloid and acute monocytic from ALL

Myeloperoxidase differentiates

A. acute myeloid from chronic myelocytic leukemia

B. acute myeloid and acute monocytic from ALL

C. acute myelomonocytic from acute monocytic leukemia

D. acute lymphoblastic from acute monocytic leukemia

B. Positive in a block-like pattern in some lymphoblasts

The PAS reaction is

A. positive in the neutrophilic granulocytes, except blasts

B. positive in a block-like pattern in some lymphoblasts

C. negative in megakaryoblasts

D. negative in myelocytes

B. Pyruvate kinase

What is the most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with the anaerobic pathway of erythrocyte metabolism?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

B. Pyruvate kinase

C. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency

D. Hexokinase deficiency

C. 60-80%

The reference range of PMN neutrophil count in adults is

A. 20-40%

B. 40-60%

C. 60-80%

D. 80-100%

A. PPRP (Primitive pattern recognition receptors)

Used by phagocytes to react directly with microorganisms

A. PPRP

B. HLA-A

C. HLA-B

D. Fc region of Ig

Plasma/serum, saliva

Lewis antibodies can be neutralized through the use of?

human breast milk

Anti-I can be neutralized by?

urine

Anti-Sda can be neutralized by

hydatid cyst fluid, pigeon droppings, turtledoves' egg whites

Anti-P1 can be neutralized by

A. Newborns

Group I ABO discrepancies

A. Newborns

B. Subgroups of A or B

C. Polyagglutination

D. Multiple myeloma

E. Chagas

Which test is not required on an allogeneic donation?

A. HIV 1/2 antibody

B. HCV NAT

C. HBc antibody

D. STS for syphilis

E. Chagas

A. Classical

Which complement pathway is activated by the formation of antigen-antibody complexes?

A. Classical

B. Alternative

C. Lectin

D. Retro

A. C1q

Which of the following is the "recognition unit" in the classical complement pathway?

A. C1q

B. C3a

C. C4

D. C5

D. C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

Which of the following is the "membrane attack complex" of complement activation?

A) C1

B) C3

C) C4, C2, C3

D) C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

B. Ethyl alcohol

Which of the following is NOT a clearing agent?

A. Benzene

B. Ethyl alcohol

C. Toluene

D. Xylene

D. Both A and B

Dioxane is a reagent that acts as:

A. dehydrating agent

B. clearing agent

C. Fixative

D. Both A and B

B. Legal wife

A 65 y/o old man who was separated from his wife five years and had a live in partner was dead on arrival at the emergency room. The doctor requested for an autopsy who will sign the consent form?

A. Live in partner

B. Legal wife

C. Sister or brother

D. Parent

B. A chelating agent

EDTA, when used to promote bone decalcification acts as

A. An ion exchange resin

B. A chelating agent

C. An electrolyte

D..An Acid

B. spirochetes

Silver impregnation method of staining is used to demonstrate

A. glycogen

B. spirochetes

C. polysaccharide

D.. collagen

B. Freezing microtome and cryostat

Machines used in cutting frozen sections are:

A. rotary microtome

B. freezing microtome and cryostat

C. sliding microtome

D. none of the above

D. A pathologist as chairman and two medical technologists as members

The board of Medical technology is composed of

A. two pathologist and two medical technologists

B. a pathologist and two medical residents

C. three medical technologists

D. A pathologist as chairman and two medical technologists as members

15 units

A medical technologist who is renewing his/her certificate of registration for another 3 years must have acquired how many units of CPE?

B. Nitric acid

The fastest chemical solution in decalcifying tissues is

A. Trichloroacetic acid

B. Nitric acid

C. Formic Acid

D. Versene

A. Category A

In the course of isolation, B. anthracis is recovered that may be implicated in an act of bioterrorism. Such an organism would fall under which centers for disease control category of biological agent?

A. Category A

B. Category B

C. Category C

D. Category D

immediately

Stat = ____________

Once sufficient blood has been collected

Blood sample collection:

when do you remove the tourniquet?

Horseradish peroxidase

Enzyme label in IHC

Substrate: DAB

End product: Brown

"BROWN HORSE PERO nag-daDAB"

When using Horseradish peroxidase in IHC, what is the substrate and end product

IgG

most commonly used antibody for immunocytochemistry

1. Proteolytic Enzyme Digestion e.g., trypsin, protease

2. Heat-induced epitope retrieval

3. Microwave antigen retrieval

4. Pressure cooking antigen retrieval

Antigen Retrieval Methods

Alkaline Phosphatase

Enzyme label:

Substrate: 3-amino-9-ethylcarbazole (AEC) --> Red end product

False;

hyaline cartilage

TRUE OR FALSE

The cartilage in the ribs as a fibrocartilage

HIV/AIDS

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis C

Malaria

Syphilis

Transfusion-Transmissible Infections (TTIs) tested in Blood components

SACCL/SLH

Tests for INFECTIOUS DISEASES are confirmed at

RITM

Tests for TTIs are confirmed at

THC

Opiates

Phencyclidine

Amphetamins

Cocaine

5 panel drug test

"TOPAC"

Magnesium chloride

Which of the following is NOT a bluing agent:

A. Sodium bicarbonate

B. Ammonia water

C. Magnesium chloride

D. Lithium carbonate

Glutaraldehyde

Fixatives in EM cross link cellular structures. What is the most common fixative in electron microscopy

Paraformaldehyde

Penetrates faster than glutaraldehyde, but results in poorer ultrastructure

Osmium tetroxide

Fixative used for post-fixation in EM. It increases stability and contrast of fine structures

Acetone

Preferred dehydrating agent for EM, less lipid loss

Ultramicrotome

Microtome used for EM

Sections must be 30-60nm

45 to 50 C

Flotation bath temperature

6-10 C

Floatation bath temp is approx __-__C lower than the melting point of the wax

Flatten sections

Purpose of floating tissues

B. Anticardiolipin antibody

What substance is detected by RPR and VDRL tests for syphilis?

A. Cardiolipin

B. Anticardiolipin antibody

C. Anti-T. Pallidum antibody

D. Treponema pallidum

D. IgE

Which immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine?

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgE

A. Induction of an antiviral state

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except:

A. Induction of an antiviral state

B. Opsonization

C. Chemotaxis

D. Anaphylatoxin formation

B. CD2

Which cluster of differentiation marker appears during the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as an identifying marker for T cells?

A. CD1

B. CD2

C. CD3

D. CD4 and CD8

B. O negative

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type?

A. A neg, B neg, AB neg, O neg

B. O negative

C. AB negative

D. AB negative, A negative, B negative

D. There are concordant results of at least ine determination of the recipient's ABO type in file

Which of the following is not a requirement for tge electronic crossmatch?

A. The computer system contains logic to prevent assignment and release of ABO incompatible blood

B. There are concordant results of at least two determinations of the recipient's ABO type on record, one of which is from the current sample

C. Critical elements of the system have been validated on site

D. There are concordant results of at least one determination of the recipient's ABO type on file

B. Cold alloantibody

A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS, 1+ at 37, an negative at the IAT phase. Identify the most likely problem

A. Combination of antibodies

B. Cold alloantibody

C. Rouleaux

D. Test error

C. Recombinant HPV

Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period?

A. Rubella

B. Varicella zoster

C. Recombinant HPV

D. Smallpox

D. Immunoglobulin

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation

A. Lysocyme

B. Complement

C. Commensal organisms

D. Immunoglobulin

A. IgG

Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?

A. IgA

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgE

D. 1:2

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

A. 2:1

B.3:1

C. 2:3

D. 1:2

C. Polymerase chain reaction

Which method is used to test for HIV infection kn infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers?

A. ELISA

B. western blot test

C. Polymerase chain reaction

D. Viral culture

A. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV?

A. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

B. Imunofluorescence, western blot, radioimmunoprecipitation assay

C. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification

D. Reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA (mRNA) assay

B. Negative for HIV

Interpret the following results for HIV infection:

ELISA-(+), repeat ELISA-(-), western blot-no bands

A. Positive for HIV

B. Negative for HIV

C. Indeterminate

D. Further testing needed

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4C

What should e done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4C

B. Retype the sample using a different lot number of reagents

C. Use polyclonal typing reagents

D. Report the sample as group AB

B. Rarely, because most individuals have the antigen and therefore would not develop the antibody

The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency antigen and is found on most red cells. How often would one expect to find the corresponsing antibody?

A. Often, because it is a high frequency antibody

B. Rarely, because most individuals have the antigen and therefore would not develop the antibody

C. It depends upon the population, because certain racial and ethnic groups show a higher frequency of anti-k

D. Impossible to determine without consulting regional blood group antigen charts

C. Anti-Sda

Which of the following antibodies characteristically gives a refractile mixed-field appearance?

A. Anti-K

B. Anti-Dia

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-s

C. Perform the test; hCG may be increased in testicular tumors

What is the correct procedure upon receipt of a test request for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) on the serum from a 60-year-old man?

A. Return the request; hCG is not performed on men

B. Perform a qualitative hCG test to see if hCG is present

C. Perform the test; hCG may be increased in testicular tumors

D. Perform the test but use different standards and controls

D. Lymphocyte

Which of the followinb is NOT a phagocyte

A. Neutrophil

B. Monocyte

C. Basophil

D. Lymphocyte

C. Mast cell

Which of the following is NOT a phagocyte

A. Neutrophil

B. Monocyte

C. Mast cell

D. Dendritic cells

Dendritic cell

What are langerhan cells?

CD4+

Master switch of immune system

A. Perforin

CD8+ and NK cells annihiliate through the secretion of

A. Perforin

B. Defensin

C. Lactoferrin

D. Thrombocytopoiesis

This refers to the process where platelets are released into the bone marrow through shedding from megakaryocyte

A. Endomitosis

B. Thrombopoiesis

C. Megakaryopoiesis

D. Thrombocytopoiesis

20:1

Ratio of fixative to tissue

4%

The actual concentration of formaldehyde in a "10% formalin" solution is

Glutaraldehyde

Which of the following is the most widely used fixative in electron microscopy?

Cadaverine

Which of the following causes the characteristic foul smell produced by cadavers?

21 years old

COR is not issued to individuals less than ___ yrs old

Apoptosis

Physiological cell death

Microwave oven

Accelerates fixation

Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary

What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen?

Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle

2. A donor bag is half filled during donation when the blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action

Cold antibody

A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS, 1+ at 37C, and negative at the IAT phase. Identify the most likely problem

Accepted

An EIA screening test for HTLV I/II was performed on a whole-blood donor. The results of the EIA were repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test was negative. On the next donation, the screening test was negative by two different EIA tests. The donor should be:

Antibody screen

All of the following are routinely performed on a cord blood sample, except:

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

FFP is used to treat the following, except:

Perform a saline replacement technique

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results?

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody

A patient with joint swelling and pain tested negative for serum rheumatoid factor (RF) by both latex agglutination and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) methods. What other test would help establish a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in this patient?

Increase oxygen carrying capacity

Which of the following is the primary indication for transfusion of packed RBCs?

IgM

Triggers classical pathway

Neutrophil

Major cell in peripheral circulation

Hereditary, intracorpuscular RBC defects

Sickle cell disorders are:

A. Hereditary, intracorpuscular RBC defects

B. Hereditary, extracorpuscular RBC defects

C. Acquired, intracorpuscular RBC defects

D. Acquired, extracorpuscular RBC defects

d. Red cell regeneration

Reticulocytosis usually indicates:

a. Response to inflammation

b. Neoplastic processes

c. Aplastic anemia

d. Red cell regeneration

c. Misshapen budding fragmented cells

Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (HP) is a red cell membrane defect characterized by:

a. Increased pencil-shaped cells

b. Increased oval macrocytes

c. Misshapen budding fragmented cells

d. Bite cells

larger than normal

Stressed platelets or reticulated platelets are:

Total leukocyte count x % lymphocyte count divide by 100

Formula of Absolute Lymphocyte Count

EPO

Which growth factor is produced by the kidneys and is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease?

Factor Va and VIIIa

What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?