AUBF QUIZ 1

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129 Terms

1
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Macroscopic screening of urine specimens is used to:

Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis

2
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Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include all of the following except:

Identification of formed elements

3
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All of the following can cause false-negative microscopic results except:

Using midstream clean-catch specimens

4
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The two factors that determine relative centrifugal force are:

Diameter of rotor head and RPM

5
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When using the glass-slide and cover-slip method,

which of the following might be missed if the cover slip

is overflowed?

Casts

6
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Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:

10×

7
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Which of the following should be used to reduce light

intensity in bright-field microscopy?

Rheostat

8
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Which of the following are reported as number per lpf?

Casts

9
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The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine

sediments to do all of the following except:

Decrease precipitation of crystals

10
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Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:

Both B and C

11
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Which of the following lipids is/are stained by Sudan III?

Both B and C

12
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Which of the following lipids is/are capable of polarizing

light?

Cholesterol

13
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The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:

Eosinophils

14
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Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:

Hypersthenuric

15
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Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except:

Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

16
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A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:

Glomerular bleeding

17
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Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer-Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are:

Glitter cells

18
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Sometimes mononuclear leukocytes are mistaken for:

Renal tubular cells

19
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When pyuria is detected in a urine sediment, the slide

should be checked carefully for the presence of:

Bacteria

20
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Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the:

Bladder

21
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The largest cells in the urine sediment are:

Squamous epithelial cells

22
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A squamous epithelial cell that is clinically significant

is the:

Clue cell

23
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Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the

following except:

Convoluted

24
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Increased transitional cells are indicative of:

Both A and B

25
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A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular

epithelial cells is:

Eccentrically located nucleus

26
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After an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may

contain:

Hemosiderin granules

27
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The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:

Renal tubular cell

28
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A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a

Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does

not stain with Sudan III. The structure:

Contains cholesterol

29
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The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly

associated with:

Diabetes mellitus

30
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The primary component of urinary mucus is:

Uromodulin

31
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The majority of casts are formed in the:

Distal convoluted tubules

32
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Cylindruria refers to the presence of:

All types of casts

33
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A person submitting a urine specimen after a strenuous

exercise routine normally can have all of the following in the sediment except:

WBC casts

34
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Before identifying an RBC cast, all of the following

should be observed:

All of the above

35
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WBC casts are associated primarily with:

Pyelonephritis

36
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The shape of the RTE cell associated with RTE casts is

primarily:

Round

37
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When observing RTE casts, the cells are primarily:

Attached to the surface of a matrix

38
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The presence of fatty casts is associated with:

All of the above

39
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Nonpathogenic granular casts contain:

Cellular lysosomes

40
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All of the following are true about waxy casts except they

Require staining to be visualized

41
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Observation of broad casts represents:

Both A and C

42
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All of the following contribute to urinary crystals

formation except:

Protein concentration

43
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The most valuable initial aid for identifying crystals in a

urine specimen is:

pH

44
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Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all

of the following except:

Cystine

45
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All of the following crystals routinely polarize except:

Cystine

46
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Casts and fibers usually can be differentiated using:

polarized light microscopy

47
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Most glomerular disorders are caused by:

Immunologic disorders

48
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Dysmorphic RBC casts would be a significant finding

with all of the following except:

Chronic pyelonephritis

49
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Occasional episodes of macroscopic hematuria over periods of 20 or more years are seen in patients with:

IgA nephropathy

50
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Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:

Goodpasture syndrome

51
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ANCA is diagnostic for:

GPA

52
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Respiratory and renal symptoms are associated with all of the following except:

IgA nephropathy

53
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The presence of fatty casts is associated with all of the following except:

Nephrogenic DI

54
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The highest levels of proteinuria are seen with:

NS

55
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Ischemia frequently produces:

Acute renal tubular necrosis

56
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A disorder associated with polyuria and low specific gravity is:

Nephrogenic DI

57
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An inherited disorder producing a generalized defect in

tubular reabsorption is:

Fanconi syndrome

58
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A teenage boy who develops gout in his big toe and has a high serum uric acid should be monitored for:

Uromodulin-associated kidney disease

59
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The only protein produced by the kidney is:

Uromodulin

60
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The presence of RTE cells and casts is an indication of:

ATN

61
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Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of:

WBC Casts

62
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The presence of WBCs and WBC casts with no bacteria is indicative of:

AIN

63
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ESRD is characterized by all of the following except:

Hypersthenuria

64
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Prerenal acute renal failure could be caused by:

Massive hemorrhage

65
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The most common component of renal calculi is:

calcium oxalate

66
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Urinalysis on a patient with severe back pain being evaluated for renal calculi would be most beneficial if it showed:

Microscopic hematuria

67
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Which of the following dyes are used in Sternheimer–Malbin stain?

Crystal violet and safranin

68
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Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?

WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather than lower urinary, origin

69
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Which description of sediment with Sternheimer–Malbin stain is correct?

Transitional epithelium: cytoplasm pale blue, nucleus dark blue

70
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SITUATION:

A 5-mL urine specimen is submitted for routine urinalysis and analyzed immediately.

The SG of the sample is 1.012

pH is 6.5.

The dry reagent strip test for blood is a large positive (3+)

Microscopic examination shows 11–20 RBCs per HPF. The leukocyte esterase reaction is a small positive (1+), and the microscopic examination shows 0–5 WBCs per HPF.

What is the most likely cause of these results?

Insufficient volume is causing microscopic results to be underestimated

71
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Which of the following statements regarding epithelial cells in the urinary system is correct?

Transitional cells originate from the upper urethra, ureters, bladder, or renal pelvis

72
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Which of the statements regarding examination of unstained sediment is true?

Large numbers of transitional cells are often seen after catheterization

73
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Which of the following statements regarding cells found in urinary sediment is true?

Renal tubular cells are often polyhedral and have an eccentric round nucleus

74
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Which of the following statements regarding RBCs in the urinary sediment is true?

RBCs of glomerular origin often appear dysmorphic

75
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Renal tubular epithelial cells are shed into the urine in largest numbers in which condition?

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the kidney

76
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The ova of which parasite may be found in the urinary sediment?

Schistosoma hematobium

77
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Oval fat bodies are often seen in:

Nephrotic syndrome

78
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All of the following statements regarding urinary casts are true except:

Casts can be seen in significant numbers even when protein tests are negative

79
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Which condition promotes the formation of casts in the urine?

Reduced filtrate formation

80
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The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:

Tamm–Horsfall protein

81
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“Pseudocasts” are often caused by:

Amorphous urates

82
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Which of the following statements regarding urinary casts is correct?

Broad casts are associated with severe renal tubular obstruction

83
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A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:

Acute glomerulonephritis

84
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Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:

Pyelonephritis

85
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Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure?

Waxy casts

86
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SITUATION:

Urinalysis of a sample from a patient suspected of having a transfusion reaction reveals small yellow-brown crystals in the microscopic examination. Dry reagent strip tests are normal with the exception of a positive blood reaction (moderate) and trace positive protein. The pH of the urine is 6.5.

What test should be performed to positively identify the crystals?

Prussian blue stain

87
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When examining urinary sediment, which of the following is considered an abnormal finding?

0–1 renal cell casts per LPF

88
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SITUATION:

A urine sample with a pH of 6.0 produces an abundance of pink sediment after centrifugation that appears as densely packed yellow- to reddish-brown granules under the microscope.

The crystals are so dense that no other formed elements can be evaluated.

What is the best course of action?

Suspend the sediment in prewarmed saline, then repeat centrifugation

89
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How can hexagonal uric acid crystals be distinguished from cystine crystals?

Cystine gives a positive nitroprusside test after reduction with sodium cyanide

90
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The presence of tyrosine and leucine crystals together in a urine sediment usually indicates:

Chronic liver disease

91
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Which of the following crystals is considered nonpathological?

Bilirubin

92
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At which pH are ammonium biurate crystals usually found in urine?

Alkaline urine only

93
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Which of the following crystals is seen commonly in alkaline and neutral urine?

Uric acid

94
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Which crystal appears in urine as a long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid?

Hippuric acid

95
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Small yellow needles are seen in the sediment of a urine sample with a pH of 6.0. Which of the following crystals can be ruled out?

Cholesterol crystals

96
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Oval fat bodies are derived from:

Renal tubular epithelium

97
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Oval fat bodies are often associated with:

Lipoid nephrosis

98
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Urine of constant SG ranging from 1.008 to 1.010 most likely indicates:

Renal tubular failure

99
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Which of the following characterizes prerenal failure, and helps to differentiate it from acute renal failure caused by renal disease?

BUN:creatinine ratio of 20:1 or higher

100
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Which of the following conditions characterizes chronic glomerulonephritis and helps to differentiate it from acute glomerulonephritis?

Polyuria