pharmacology & immunology

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361 Terms

1
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pharmacology

the study of drugs and thier properties

2
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t/f: there can be multiple generic names of a drug (ex ibuprofen)

false

3
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all of the following are examples of trade names for drug except one, choose the exception:

ibuprofen

3 multiple choice options

4
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during this phase of clinical testing, small doses are given to a small number of healthy human volunteers and it determines human safety

Phase I

5
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during this phase of clinical testing, the drug is given to a large number of healthy humans and is used to test effectiveness and any adverse reactions

Phase II

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during this phase of clinical testing post marketing surveillance takes place along with documenting toxicity in patients that are taking the drug after its release; sometimes drugs are taken off market at this point

Phase IV

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during this phase drug is given to large number of humans with the condition to be treated; tests safety and efficacy and determines dosages

Phase III

8
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what government agency is in charge of monitoring drugs with potential for abuse?

Drug Enforcement Agency

9
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a prescription is required for what drug schedules?

II, III, IV

10
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schedule ___ drugs require a written or typed prescription for every refill

II

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what are examples of schedule IV drugs?

- antianxiety (xanex, valium)

- sleeping meds (Ambien, ativan)

- tramadol (pain)

12
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_________ is the amount of drug needed to produce a therapudic effect

potency

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________ is the maximum intensity of effect produced by a drug

efficacy

14
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a less potent drug will require _______ to get the desired effect

more

15
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t/f giving more of a drug will increase efficacy

false

16
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onset

time for the drug to start having an effect

17
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duration

length of time the effect is present

18
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half-life:

time it takes for drug concentration to fall to 50% of original blood level

19
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therapeutic index:

measure of the safety of a drug

20
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bactericidal

drug or substance that kills bacteria- irreversible

21
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bacteriostatic

drug or substance that prevents growth of bacteria

22
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Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

lowest concentration of a drug or substance that will inhibit the visible growth of a microorganism after overnight incubation

23
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spectrum:

range of activity of a drug (broad or narrow)

24
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antagonism:

occurs when a combination of two agents produces less effect than either agent alone (opposite of synergism)

25
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synergism:

combination of two drugs causes an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effects of each drug alone (opposite of antagonism)

26
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antagonist

drug counteracts the action of agonist

27
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agonist

drug produces an effect and has affinity for a receptor on the cell membrane

28
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what is the acronym for pharmacokinetics? the mechanism of movement of drugs within the body

ADME

29
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t/f: lipid soluble drugs diffuse easily across membranes

true

30
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t/f: ionic molecules diffuse easily across membranes

false

31
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how could the absorption step of pharmacokinetics be bypassed?

when the drug is administered via IV

32
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where is the most important site of drug absorption for oral medications?

small intestine

33
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How are drugs distributed throughout the body?

blood

34
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where does most drug metabolism take place?

liver

35
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t/f: the metabolite is more ionized and less lipid soluble that the parent compound

true

36
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an inactive drug to active metabolite is termed

prodrug

37
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what drug.starts with an active drug and then turns into an active metabolite leading to a longer half-life?

valium

38
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where is a drug excreted from the body?

kidneys

39
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lipid soluble drugs must be metabolized by the _________ into a water soluble form to be excreted in urine

liver

40
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what is the major route of fluoride excretion?

urine

41
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if a drug is taken oraly it would be be termed to be taken the ___________ route

enteral

42
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drugs taken the __________ route are cheap, safe, and convenient but they have a slower onset and drug. blood levels are less predictable

enteral

43
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orally delivered drugs must pass through hepatic portal circulation which can inactivate some drugs called the:

first pass effect

44
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drugs with high first pass effect require a _________ oral dose as a high percentage will be deactivated

larger

45
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this route of drug administration bypasses the GI tract and also the distribution step of ADME it includes inhalation, topical, and injection administration.

Parenteral Route

46
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what is the therapeutic effect of a drug?

the desirable action of the drug

47
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t/f: the therapeutic effect of a drug. is predictable

true

48
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t/f: the adverse reaction is dose related and is expected but unwanted

true

49
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this type of reaction is expected, dose related, and is an exaggeration of the therapeutic effect (ex. respiratory depression)

toxic reaction

50
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t/f: an allergic reaction is not predictable and not dose related

true

51
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this type of allergic reaction is an immediate hypersensitivity - anaphylaxis

Type I

52
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this type of allergic reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity like contact dermatitis

Type IV

53
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a patient presents taking a category A drug and reports that she is pregnant; should you be concerned?

no

54
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this type of reaction is not a side effect of a drug or an allergic reaction it is just a random reaction that could be a result of genetics

idiosyncratic reaction

55
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what are examples of drugs that can interfere with the body's natural defense system?

corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs

56
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lethal dose

dose that kills 50% of animals in laboratory studies

57
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effective dose

the dose that produces effect in 50% of animals

58
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a ____________ therapeutic index increases the risk of toxicity

narrow

59
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all of the following are drugs that are known to have a narrow TI except one, chose the exception:

tylenol & aspirin

3 multiple choice options

60
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Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System (SANS)

fight or flight response

61
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Parasympathetic Autonomic Nervous System (PANS)

rest and digest

62
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What is a Postganglionic neurotransmitter in the Sympathetic nervous system?

norepinephrine

63
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what is the Postganglionic neurotransmitter in the Parasympathetic nervous system?

Acetylcholine

64
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what do adrenergic drugs (sympathomimetics) mimic?

Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System

65
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what do a-receptors do?

vasoconstriction

66
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what do b1-receptors do?

heart; rate and strength of contraction

67
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what do b2-receptors do?

lungs; bronchodilation

68
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what do bronchodilators treat?

asthma, COPD, emphysema, bronchitis

69
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what is the suffix for bronchodilators?

-terol

70
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what are examples of bronchodilators?

- albuterol

- levalbuterol

- salmeterol

71
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What do vasopressors do?

treat shock, decrease bleedings, and nasal decongestants; contract blood vessels leading to vasoconstriction

72
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what are examples of vasopressors?

dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, ephedrine (cold med), pseudoephedrine (cold med)

73
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what do cardiac stimulators do?

used to stimulate and restore the heartbeat in emergency situations

74
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what are examples of cardiac stimulators?

epinephrine

75
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t/f: adderall is an example of a adrenergic agent (sympathomimetic)

true

76
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t/f: cocaine is an example of a adrenergic agent (sympathomimetic)

true

77
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t/f: oral mucosal irritation in methamphetamine users is from the method of drug administration, not the drug itself

true

78
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what are some adverse effects of adrenergic agents? (think SANS)

anxiety, tremors, headaches, cerebral hemorrhage & cardiac arrhythmias

79
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adrenergic drugs should not be used in patients with what conditions?

angina, uncontrolled hypertension, uncontrolled hyperthyroidism

80
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cholinergic drugs mimic the _________

PANS

81
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what are the effects of cholinergic drugs?

Bradycardia, decreased BP, increased motility, pupil constriction

82
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large doses of cholinergic agents produce ________; salivation, lacrimation, urination & dedication

SLUD

83
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what do adrenergic blocking drugs treat?

mainly heart conditions

- hypertension

- arrhythmias

- heart failure

- angina

- post MI

84
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what suffix do b-blockers (beta blockers) adrenergic blocking drugs end in?

-olol

85
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what are side effects of b-blockers? (beta blocker - adrenergic blocking drug)

shortness of breath in asthmatics

86
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which of the following drugs are used to treat xerostomia?

pilocarpine (Salagen) & cevimeline (Evoxac)

87
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t/f: cholinergic drugs can be used to treat glaucoma and Alzheimer's

true

88
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what do anticholinergic drugs block?

acetylcholine

89
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what are the uses of anticholinergic drugs?

mydriasis (pupil dilation), reduced secretions, reduced GI motility

90
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which of the following drugs are examples of anticholinergic drugs?

loperamide (Imodium)

91
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what is atropine (anticholinergic) used for?

to decrease saliva production before surgery

92
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What is ipratropium (anticholinergic) used for?

COPD

93
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what is scopolamine (anticholinergic) used for?

motion sickness

94
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asprin has ___"a's", ibuprofen has _____ and tylenol has ___

4,3,2

95
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nonopioid analgesics work at the __________ nerve endings

peripheral

96
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what is the mechanism of action for non opioid analgesics?

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX)

97
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if we inhibit prostaglandin synthesis what happens?

increase pain threshold, desensitized pain receptors, reduced inflammation

98
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aspirin "does it ____!!!"

all

99
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t/f: aspirin is a nsaid

true

100
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what does aspirin do?

analgesic, antipyretic, anti inflammatory, antiplatelet