exam 3 emt

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92 Terms

1
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The high-pitched sound caused by an upper aiway obstruction is known as:
stridor
2
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The trachea branches at the ______ and forms two mainstem bronchi
carina
3
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Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway?
bronchi
4
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All of the following can result in airway obstructions except:
the tongue
5
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Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to:
say "hello"
6
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clurring sleeping indicative of diminshed muscle tone :
snoring
7
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your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. he vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. you should:
roll him onto his side to clear the airway
8
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which of the following is a sign of inadequate airway?
nasal flarring
9
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which of the following patients should not have their airway opened using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
a homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders
10
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The jaw-thrust maneuver is the only______ airway opening procedure for an unconcious patient with head, neck, or spring injury or an unknown mechanism or injury
recommended
11
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which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAS)?
they cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflecx
12
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which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
it may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex
13
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which of the following is not performed during the airway phase of the primary assessment?
obtaining the respiratory rate
14
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on which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit to the patients side upon arrival on the scene?
all of the above
15
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you are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. which of the following would be most effective in clearing the airway?
using a large bone suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached
16
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when suctioning the airway, you should try to limit suctioning to no longer than _____seconds at a time.
10
17
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you are ventilating an 85-year old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask seal, you should:
leave the dentures in place
18
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when inserting an oropharyngeal airway, how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the patients pharynx?
180
19
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you have performed a head-tilt chin lift maneuver on 17-month old boy and are attempting to ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. you are experiencing a lot of resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. prior to attempting ventilations again, you should:
ease the head forward a little
20
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which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric patient?
the trachea is easily obstructed by swelling
21
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which of the following is the correct method of suctioning?
insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction
22
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which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum or the base of the nostril?
23
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for life to be maintained, a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide is needed. the condition when oxygen levels are low is called:
hypoxia
24
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what are the signs of hypoxia?
cyanosis (blue or gray skin) and deterioration of the patients mental status
25
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what signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in patient?
increased effort to breath, cyanosis, clammy skin, altered mental status
26
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when assessing a patients breathing, what is your first patient?
are they breathing?
27
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why is inhalation described as an active processes?
it requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure.
28
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The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called:
ventilation
29
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the normal urge to breathe is stimulated by chemoreceptors that measure changing levels of what two gases?
carbon dioxide and oxygen
30
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which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume?
the lungs may not have adequate time to fill and exchange and gas
31
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what two measurements are multiplied to calculate the minute volume?
tidal volume and respiratory rate
32
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concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true?
it is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable
33
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which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure?
regulator
34
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which of the following colors identifies a medical oxygen-cylinder?
green
35
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you are attempting to replace the oxygen cylinder in your truck. after removing the regulator from the old cylinder, removing the old cylinder, and placing the new cylinder in the oxygen compartment, you attempt to connect the regulator. the new cylinder is yellow rather than green, but it was stored with the green cylinders. you are unable to get the regulator to seat properly and it will not turn. you should:
remove the yellow cylinder and get a green cylinder.
36
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the oyxgen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed________liters per minute.
6
37
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which of the following statements best describes the exchange of gas in the alveoli?
air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs.
38
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the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is called:
pulmonary respiration
39
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why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration?
a lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood
40
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the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from the capillaries is called:
internal respiration
41
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which of the following can cause respiratory depression?
end stage COPD changes the stimulus to breathe from high carbon dioxide levels to low oxygen levels, causing breathing to become depressed when oxygen is administrated
42
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which of these patients would require a tracheostomy mask for supplemental oxygen administration?
a patient with a stoma
43
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before applying a nonrebreather mask, the EMT should take what action?
inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not completely deflate during inspiration
44
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you are transporting a 44-year old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. she is agitated, anxious, and refuses to have a nonrebreather mask applied. which of the following is the best option?
use a nasal cannula instead
45
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a nonrebreather mask at 12-15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of oxygen?
80-90
46
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a patient is a 65-year old male with a history of COPD. he is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. you should:
apply a nonrebreather mask giving a 15 lpm of oxygen
47
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which of the following is the best device to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient?
nonrebreather mask
48
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your patient is a 55-year old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment revels difficult speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient?
you should increase the patients oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve mask device.
49
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a 21 year old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124 respiration, 36; he is unresponsive. What is the treatment for this patient?
Ventilate with a bag valve-mask with high oxygen of bvm or PROPVD
50
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you are aggressively ventilating with high volume tidal volume an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice what his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You should:
reduce the volume of the ventilations
51
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What device is used to perform-mouth-to-mask ventilation?
pocket-face mask
52
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which of the following patients does not require the administration of supplemental oxygen?
A 24-year old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being an argument with her husband.
53
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Your patient a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. which of the following should you do first?
use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen.
54
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you have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down". As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and lips, and has rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do first?
Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen.
55
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a 16 year -old patient presents with labored breathing and increase respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is a normal color and his pulse oximetry is 96%. This patient is suffering from respiratory:
distress
56
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Quality compressions when doing CPR include all of the following EXCEPT:
pausing ever 30:2 for a pulse check
57
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The first step in assessing a patient in cardiac arrest is to:
verify pulselessness and apnea
58
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The most important component of successful CPR is:
quality compressions
59
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which of the following describes the EMT's most important role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac care ?
immediate high-quality CPR and rapid defibrillation
60
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Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide:
high-quality compressions
61
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you are preparing a patient in cardiac arrest for an AED when you palpate a small lump below the patients right clavicle. How should this modify your placement of the AED?
62
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which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied?
A 19-year old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic
63
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EMTs arrive at the scene of a cardiac arrest to see a police officer beginning to defibrillate the patient. At what point should the EMTS take over?
After the shock is delivered or a "no" shock indicated message its received
64
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in which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in adults?
cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure
65
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You are on the scene of a 65-year old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied, The AED does not advise shock. What is your next intervention?
Continue CPR
66
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Your patient is a 66-year old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next?
Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.
67
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You are the first on the scene of a 72-year old patient in cardiac arrest. you have your medical supply kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do next?
Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated
68
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you are transporting a 50-year old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
69
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Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs?
Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.
70
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What does ventricular fibrillation do?
Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally
71
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Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in ventricular tachycardia?
Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, reanalyze, shock again if indicated
72
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Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the defibrillator?
None of the above
73
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When using an AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock?
EMT operating the defibrillator
74
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Your patient is a 44-year old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your FIRST action?
Apply the AED
75
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Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED indicate that there is "no shock" advised?
The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia
76
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Which of the following should NOT be done during defibrillation?
Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia?
77
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If an EMT is tasked with managing the family of a patient who is deceased after termination of resuscitation, what is an effective care strategy?
Be straightforward and use direct language
78
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All of the following are elements of adult high-performance CPR, except:
Compressing the patients chest to no more than 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.
79
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If a patient has an artificial pacemaker, it is usually visible as a lump:
below a clavicle
80
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Pediatric defibrillator pads should be used for defibrillation of any child who is less than:
8 year old
81
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If you identify a cardiac arrest patient, the first step you should take is:
begin chest compressions
82
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______ occurs when a persons normal heartbeat and circulation of blood have completely stopped.
Cardiac arrest
83
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A critical underlying theme in the chain of survival is ______
teamwork
84
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The delivery of an electrical shock to the chest to restart the hearts normal action is known as___________
defibrillation
85
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__________occurs when the heart begins to beat on its own again
return of spontaneous circulation
86
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the two types of "shockable rhythms" for an AED unit are ________ and_______
ventricular fibrillation; ventricular tachycardia
87
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gasping respirations that occurs as a primal reflect to the cardiac arrest state are
agonal breathing
88
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when defibrillating a patient who was rescued from a water environment, always_____ the patient before defibrillating
dry
89
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if you have to notify the family of an unsuccessful resuscitation, be straightforward and use
direct language
90
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AHA Guidelines suggest that ventilations should be integrated at a ratio of _____ ventilations to
2:30
91
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The two most important factors is determining survival from cardiac arrest are _______ and _____
rapid defibrillation; quality CPR
92
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During the primary assessment of an unresponsive two-month old infant, which pulse should be palpated?
brachial