VMCB122 1st Lecture Exam

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1
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All of the following are not true statements about Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT that:


It has medusa head colonies
It clots mammalian plasma
It is positive for the coagulase test
It causes erysipelas
It causes carbuncles
It is positive for the coagulase test
2
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The following species causes gas gangrene in cattle and sheep, EXCEPT:


Clostridium noyvi Type A
Clostridium sordellii
Clostridium perfringens
None of the above
Clostridium perfringens
3
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Which of the following is a virulent factor of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?


Neuraminidase
Endotoxin
Hemolysin
Exotoxin
Flagella
Neuraminidase
4
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Which of the following toxins causes the Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?


Tetanus toxin
Botulinum toxin
Epidermolytic toxin
Enterotoxin A-E
Hemolysin
Epidermolytic toxin
5
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Second double zone of hemolysis indicating presence of lecithinase is a characteristic of:

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Clostridium perfringens
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium perfringens
6
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The following bacteria produce spores, EXCEPT:


Bacillus anthracis
Nocardia asteroides
Clostridium perfringens
Corynebacterium renale
Corynebacterium renale
7
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Which is a membrane bound virulence factor of Staphylococci?


Exotoxins
Leukocidin
Coagulase
Adhesins
Streptokinase
Adhesins
8
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The most aerotolerant Clostridia among the following is?

Clostridium noyvi
Clostridium septicum
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium septicum
9
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Which of the following is not a Gram-positive bacterium?
Clostridium perfringens
Corynebacterium renale
Bacillus subtilis
None of the above
None of the above
10
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Which of the following Bacillus spp. is non-motile?
Bacillus cereus
Bacillus subtilis
Bacillus coagulans
None of the above
None of the above
11
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Among the *Corynebacterium renale* group, which species can reduce nitrate?
Corynebacterium pilosum
12
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?


They are non-pathogenic to swine
Non-motile
Non-acid fast
Gram-positive rods
They are non-pathogenic to swine
13
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Which of the following is the basis of virulence for Bacillus anthracis?


Coagulase
Anthrax toxin
Protective antigen
Glutamic acid capsule
Anthrax toxin
14
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Which of the following Gram-positive rods is anaerobic?
Bacillus
Clostridium
Listeria
Nocardia
Corynebacterium
Clostridium
15
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Which of the following is a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
Motile
Anaerobic
Capsulated
Hemolytic on BAP
Capsulated
16
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?
It is a gram-positive pleomorphic bacilli.
It is the causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis.
It can inhibit staphylococcal toxin in the CAMP test.
It inhibits hemolysis with R. equi in the CAMP Test
It inhibits hemolysis with R. equi in the CAMP Test

(S. aureus instead of R.equi)
17
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T/F. In CAMP test with a *Staphylococcus aureus, Rhodococcus equi* gives an enhancement of the effect to the staphylococcal beta-hemolysin.
TRUE
18
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T/F. In CAMP test with a *Staphylococcus aureus, Corynebacterium renale* gives an enhancement to the effect of the staphylococcal beta-hemolysin
FALSE

\
(S. aureus should be R. equi)
19
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T/F. In CAMP test with a *Staphylococcus aureus, Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis* gives an enhancement to the effect of the staphylococcal beta-hemolysin.
FALSE (inhibition)
20
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T/F. The optimal growth temperature for *Listeria monocytogenes* is between 30°C and 37°C but they can also grow at 4°C.
TRUE
21
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T/F. *Corynebacterium renale* can digest casein on milk agar.
TRUE
22
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T/F. Alpha and delta hemolysins can cause complete or beta-hemolysis.
TRUE
23
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T/F. *Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae* is non-spore forming organism.
TRUE
24
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T/F. Corynebacterium pilosum causes gangrene in cattle and sheep
FALSE (Clostridium)
25
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T/F. *Clostridium perfringens* produces potent neurotoxins but are non-invasive.
FALSE
26
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*Actinomyces bovis* is a filamentous bacterium.
TRUE
27
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Caseous Lymphadenitis
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
28
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Circling disease (sheep)
Listeria monocytogenes
29
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Wooden tongue
Actinobacillus lignieresii
30
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Lumpy jaw
Actinomyces bovis
31
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Summer mastitis
Trueperella pyogenes
32
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Lumpy wool
Dermatophilus congolensis
33
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Pulpy kidney disease (sheep)
Clostridium perfringens type D
34
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Greasy heel (horses)
Staphylococcus hyicus
35
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Strangles
Streptococcus equi
36
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Blackleg disease
Clostridium chauvoei
37
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Black disease
Clostridium noyvi type B
38
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Among the *Corynebacterium renale* group, which species can digest casein on milk agar?
Corynebacterium renale
39
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This form of swine erysipelas is characterized by skin lesions (diamond-skin), endocarditis and polyarthritis.
Chronic
40
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Partial hemolysis seen as greenish discolaration on BAP is also called _____ hemolysis
Alpha
41
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What stain is used in M’Fadyean reaction to diagnose anthrax from tissues or blood smears?
Polychromethylene blue
42
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Salmon pink colonies is a characteristic of what bacteria?
Rhodococcus equi
43
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The most important virulence factor of Listeria species which lyses phagosome and ferritin vesicles, thus aiding in the survival of the organism in macrophages.
Lysteriolysin or LLO
44
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The present name of *Corynebacterium renale* type II.
Corynebacterium pilosum
45
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In CAMP test, __***______***__ exhibited enhancement of the staphylococcal beta-hemolysin by *Listeria monocytogenes* but not by *Listeria ivanovii.* On the other hand, CAMP test with __***_____***__showed enhancement of the hemolysis by *Listeria ivanovii* but not by *Listeria monocytogenes.*
Staphylococcus aureus

Rhodococcus equi
46
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Nagler’s test is used to identify *Clostridium perfringens* from other species. Which toxin of *C. perfringens* reacts with the lecithin in egg yolk agar?
Alpha toxin
47
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Gram-negative motile bacteria that typically appear comma or s-shaped with a single flagellum that allows their characteristic corkscrew darting motion.
Campylobacter
48
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Most common bacterial cause of human gastroenteritis worldwide.
Campylobacter
49
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Spirochetes with arthropod vector
Borrelia
50
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Causative agent of Weil’s disease in dogs, a severe form of leptospirosis.
Leptospira interrogans serovar icterohaemorrhagiae
51
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Causative agent of Lyme disease in humans.
Borrelia burgdorferi
52
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Causative agent of syphilis.
Treponema pallidum ssp. pallidum
53
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Able to cause enteropathy in rabbits
Lawsonia intracellularis
54
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Causative agent of plague which is a septicemic disease of major importance in humans, rodents, and occasionally domestic animals.
Yersinia pestis
55
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Classified as a major pathogen in the Family *Enterobacteriaceae.*
Proteus spp.
56
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One of the many key causes for extraintestinal infections next to *E. coli.*
Enterobacter aerogenes
57
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Comprises nearly 2500 serovars (based on the Kauffman-White scheme in which H (flagellar) and O (somatic) antigens).
Salmonella
58
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Non-lactose fermenter from Family *Enterobacteriaceae.*
Salmonella typhimurium
59
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Infections caused by these microorganisms are related to captive non-human primates and stressful situations.
Shigella
60
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Causes severe vascular lesions in the colonic mucosa, hemorrhagic colitis, and in some cases hemolytic uremic syndrome.
Shiga toxin
61
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Contains both inner and outer membranes, a thin peptidoglycan layer and periplasm.
Cell wall
62
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Gel-like material secreted around the bacteria *Pseudomonas* during infection to evade host immune system via preventing phagocytosis and complement system activation.
Alginate
63
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*Pseudomonas aeruginosa* virulence factor that has antibacterial function utilized as a defense mechanism in the environment.
T6SS
64
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Iron-acquiring siderophore associated with toxic activity on the host cell.
Pyocyanin
65
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Which of the following most live in acidic soil and some of the members are closely associated with soil fungi?
Burkholderia
66
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Causative agent of glanders
Burkholderia mallei
67
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Causative agent of pseudoglanders
Burkholderia pseudomallei
68
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Causative agent of meliodosis
Burkholderia pseudomallei
69
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Causative agent of Glasser’s disease
Glaesserella parasuis
70
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Causative agent of thrombotic meningoencephalitis.
Histophilus somni
71
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Causative agent of infectious coryza in chickens.
Avibacterium paragallinarum
72
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Species from this genus are fragile and collection of the specimens should be protected from drying and cultured as soon as possible after collection. Refrigeration and transport media may not be particularly beneficial and deep freezing is the only reliable method for the preservation of these bacteria.
Haemophilus
73
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Among the most dangerous bacteria to work within a laboratory and a biohazard cabinet must be used and all other safety procedures employed according to biosafety level (BSL)-3 guidelines.
Burkholderia
74
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Small colonies of *Haemophilus influenzae* growing adjacent to mature *Staphylococcus* colonies, after 48 h incubation at 35°C in 10% CO2.
Satellitism
75
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Most commonly transmitted sexually, often through an asymptomatic carrier stallion
Taylorella equigenitalis
76
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Causative agent of contagious equine metritis.
Taylorella equiginetalis
77
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Which is not true about Taylorella?

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Facultative anaerobic
Fastidious
Short Gram-positive rods
Non-motile
Short Gram-positive rods
78
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Commensals in the intestines that can cause severe disease in the urinary tract and peritoneal cavity.
E. coli
79
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Broadly divided into diarrheagenic and extraintestinal pathogenic strains
E. coli
80
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Diarrheagenic E. albertii strains

\
STEC
EHEC
EPEC
None of the above
None of the above
81
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With clinical manifestation of foodborne bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uretic syndrome.
EHEC
82
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Causes cystitis, vaginitis, and balanoposthitis in dogs as well as neonatal infection of puppies.
Canicola haemoglobinophilus
83
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Produce pyogranulomatous disease and designated as category B bioterrorism agents by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, United States, and considered as emerging and re-emerging infectious agent of humans by the National Institutes of Health, United States.

\
Burkholderia mallei
Burkholderia pseudomallei
None of the choices
Both A and B
Both A and B
84
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Facultative intracellular bacterium

\
Burkholderia mallei
Burkholderia pseudomallei
None of the choices
Both A and B
Both A and B
85
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Motile

\
Burkholderia pseudomallei
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
None of the choices
Both A and B
Both A and B
86
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Purple agar containing 1% maltose is a useful medium to distinguish between the pathogenic staphylococci particularly with coagulase-positive isolates. Which of the following growths (refer to the picture below-A, B or C) best describes the Staphylococcus aureus growth?
Purple agar containing 1% maltose is a useful medium to distinguish between the pathogenic staphylococci particularly with coagulase-positive isolates. Which of the following growths (refer to the picture below-A, B or C) best describes the Staphylococcus aureus growth?
B
87
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Previous name of Rhodococcus equi
Corynebacterium equi
88
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All are filamentous bacteria except for?

\
Streptomyces spp.

Nocardia otitidiscaviarum

Actinomyces bovis

Campylobacter jejuni

Trueperella progenies
Campylobacter jejuni
89
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Which of the following CAMP test results exhibited a synergistic or enhanced hemolysis between two organisms
Which of the following CAMP test results exhibited a synergistic or enhanced hemolysis between two organisms
di mo pa rin masagutan? nasa pic na bhie ung sagot
90
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Reservoir hosts of Leptospira spp.
Rodents
91
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T/F. Listeria monocytogenes and Listeria ivanovii can cause abortion in sheep and cattle.
TRUE
92
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In CAMP test, Staphylococcus aureus exhibited enhancement of the staphylococcal beta-hemolysin by Listeria monocytogenes but not by Listeria ivanovii.
TRUE
93
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Which of the following is not a Gram-positive bacterium?
â—‹ Clostridium perfringens
â—‹ Corynebacterium renale
â—‹ Bacillus subtilis
â—‹ Nocardia asteroides
â—‹ None of the above
None of the above
94
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The serological Lancefield grouping scheme for streptococci is based on the group-specific carbohydrate cell wall antigens, with groups from A to J and K to V.
FALSE

\
(A to H)
95
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Which of the following Bacillus spp. is non-motile?
â—‹ Bacillus cereus
â—‹ Bacillus subtilis
â—‹ Bacillus coagulans
â—‹ Bacillus filiforms
â—‹ None of the above
None of the above
96
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Which Bacillus spp are non-motile
B. anthracis and B.mycoides
97
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The following staphylococcal virulence factors are membrane damaging exotoxins, EXCEPT:
â—‹ Exfoliatin
â—‹ Leukocidin
â—‹ Hemolysin
â—‹ Capsule
â—‹ None of the above
Capsule
98
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Which of the following staphylococcal hemolysins cause complete hemolysis?
Alpha
Beta
Delta
Gamma
Alpha and Delta
99
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T/F. “Bound” coagulase (clumping factor) is detected by the slide test and “free” coagulase by the tube test. While the tube test is definitive, the slide test can be used as a rapid screening test for S. aureus.
TRUE
100
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T/F. Clostridium tetani produces tetanolysin (a neurotoxin) and tetanospasmin (a hemolysin) which are responsible for the signs of tetanus.
FALSE