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1. The Golgi apparatus is associated with:
a. cell reproduction.
b. energy production.
c. packaging materials for transport.
d. protein synthesis.
c. packaging materials for transport.
2. The endoplasmic reticulum:
a. is entirely separate from the nucleus.
b. has agranular locations associated with protein synthesis.
c. has granular locations with ribosome attachments and is associated with protein synthesis.
d. has an internal fluid with the same composition as that found in the cytoplasm
c. has granular locations with ribosome attachments and is associated with protein synthesis.
3. Which one of the organelles is the site of the citric acid cycle?
a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Centrosome
d. Endoplasmic reticulum
a. Mitochondria
4. The aerobic stage of energy production from carbohydrate, lipid, and protein catabolism involves:
a. acetyl-Co A.
b. NAD and FAD.
c. the citric acid cycle.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
5. The electron transfer chain is located in the:
a. endoplasmic reticulum.
b. mitochondria.
c. nucleus.
d. Golgi apparatus.
b. mitochondria.
6. In the electron flow in the electron transfer chain:
a. ATP is synthesized from ADP (oxidative phosphorylation).
b. NADH and FADH2 are oxidized.
c. oxygen is consumed and metabolic water is produced.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
7. A chromosome is:
a. the same as a gene.
b. a large molecule of DNA.
c. a large molecule of RNA.
d. the histone portion of DNA.
b. a large molecule of DNA.
8. At which stage of mitosis is the nuclear envelope reconstructed?
a. Telophase
b. Prophase
c. Anaphase
d. Metaphase
a. Telophase
9. Mitosis:
a. is a phenomenon of cell division in which each cell after division has a haploid chromosome number.
b. is the division of somatic cells in which nuclear division precedes cytoplasmic fission.
c. is the division of reproductive cells (oocytes and spermatozoa) in which each cell after division has a diploid chromosome number.
d. concludes with the anaphase stage.
b. is the division of somatic cells in which nuclear division precedes cytoplasmic fission.
10. The sequence of bases on one strand of DNA is TGCCAT. What would be the sequence of bases of its complementary strand within a DNA double helix?
a. ACGGTA
b. CATTGC
c. GTAACG
d. TGCCAT
a. ACGGTA
11. During replication of DNA:
a. the double helix is not split and a new double helix forms by its side.
b. the double helix is split and each nucleotide chain is identified as the new chromosome
c. the double helix is split and each nucleotide chain becomes paired with a new complementary strand, forming two double-helix chromosomes.
d. the duplicated attached chromosomes are called centromeres.
c. the double helix is split and each nucleotide chain becomes paired with a new complementary strand, forming two double-helix chromosomes.
12. The synthesis of protein:
a. occurs in the cytoplasm and is accomplished by RNA molecules.
b. occurs in the nucleus and is accomplished by DNA molecules.
c. occurs within the endoplasmic reticulum.
d. has nothing to do with the DNA.
a. occurs in the cytoplasm and is accomplished by RNA molecules.
13. During the synthesis of protein:
a. only one tRNA is involved in its synthesis.
b. tRNA is synthesized by the Golgi apparatus in the cytoplasm.
c. tRNA enters the nucleus with its attached amino acid for the nuclear synthesis.
d. tRNAs, specific for each of 20 amino acids, move to the cytoplasm to pick up respective amino acids and carry it to the mRNA, where it is fitted into the code for a specific protein molecule.
d. tRNAs, specific for each of 20 amino acids, move to the cytoplasm to pick up respective amino acids and carry it to the mRNA, where it is fitted into the code for a specific protein molecule.
14. Meiosis:
a. is the same as mitosis except that it occurs in reproductive cells, the oocytes and spermatozoa.
b. begins after fertilization of the oocyte by the spermatozoa.
c. results in a reduction of chromosome numbers by one-half (haploid or n) while still in the reproductive systems of the male and female.
d. happens beyond fertilization and during the formation of a new individual.
c. results in a reduction of chromosome numbers by one-half (haploid or n) while still in the reproductive systems of the male and female.
15. The nervous system develops from the germ layer known as:
a. ectoderm.
b. mesoderm.
c. endoderm.
d. hypoderm.
a. ectoderm.
16. The coelom is the forerunner of:
a. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle.
b. the pericardial, pleural, and abdominopelvic cavities.
c. the skin and all of its derivatives.
d. the placenta.
b. the pericardial, pleural, and abdominopelvic cavities.
17. Epithelial tissues are derived from:
a. ectoderm.
b. endoderm.
c. mesoderm.
d. both a and b.
d. both a and b.
18. Epithelium that appears to consist of many layers but actually only has one layer is known as:
a. stratified squamous.
b. transitional.
c. simple columnar.
d. pseudostratified columnar.
d. pseudostratified columnar.
19. Glands with cells that accumulate secretory products in their cytoplasm and then die and disintegrate are known as:
a. apocrine glands.
b. merocrine glands.
c. holocrine glands.
d. pep glands.
c. holocrine glands.
20. Mucous membranes:
a. line body cavities and cover the surfaces of related organs.
b. line the hollow organs and cavities that open on the skin surface of the body.
c. are represented by pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum.
d. both a and c.
b. line the hollow organs and cavities that open on the skin surface of the body.
21. Tissues that produce intercellular substances (e.g., cartilage and bone), store fat, and produce various blood cells are known as:
a. connective tissues.
b. epithelial tissues.
c. nervous tissues.
d. muscle tissues.
a. connective tissues.
22. Collagenous or white fibers, and elastic or yellow fibers:
a. are intercellular substances produced by fibroblasts.
b. are found in loose connective tissue.
c. are found in dense connective tissue.
d. a, b, and c.
d. a, b, and c.
23. Within the head, rostral means:
a. toward the nose.
b. the same as cranial.
c. toward the tail.
d. the same as caudal.
a. toward the nose.
24. A sagittal plane is:
a. one that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts.
b. any plane parallel to the median plane.
c. one that would divide the body into upper (dorsal) and lower (ventral) segments.
d. equipped with jets.
b. any plane parallel to the median plane.
25. The part of a limb, artery, or nerve that is nearest the center of the body or point of origin is referred to as:
a. proximal.
b. palmar.
c. distal.
d. superficial.
a. proximal.
26. The position in which the dorsal aspect of the body or any extremity is uppermost is known as:
a. supine.
b. upside.
c. prone.
d. downer.
c. prone.
27. The mediastinum:
a. is located in the abdominal cavity.
b. contains the heart, thoracic parts of the esophagus, trachea, vessels, and nerves.
c. is bounded by peritoneum.
d. contains the lungs.
b. contains the heart, thoracic parts of the esophagus, trachea, vessels, and nerves.
28. A mesentery is a connecting fold of the peritoneum that:
a. attaches the intestine to the dorsal wall of the abdominal cavity.
b. passes from the stomach to other soft structural viscera.
c. passes between viscera other than parts of the digestive tube or connects them with the abdominal wall.
d. separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.
a. attaches the intestine to the dorsal wall of the abdominal cavity.
29. The serous membrane that lines the wall of the thoracic cavity is:
a. parietal pleura.
b. parietal peritoneum.
c. visceral pleura.
d. visceral peritoneum.
a. parietal pleura.
30. Omentum refers to a peritoneal fold:
a. passing from the stomach to other soft structure viscera.
b. passing between viscera other than parts of the digestive tube.
c. that attaches the intestine to the dorsal wall of the abdominal cavity.
d. in the thoracic cavity.
a. passing from the stomach to other soft structure viscera.
1. A selectively permeable membrane allows the passage of water and substance X but not substance Y. Equal volumes of aqueous solution X and aqueous solution Y are placed on opposite sides of the membrane. After equilibrium, which side will contain the greater volume?
a. The side that originally contained solution X.
b. The side that originally contained solution Y.
b. The side that originally contained solution Y.
2. Erythrocytes are placed in a solution that causes them to hemolyze. The solution must be:
a. isotonic.
b. hypertonic.
c. hypotonic.
c. hypotonic.
3. A different solution is placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane. Water diffuses from side A to side B. Which side has the greater effective osmotic pressure for this to occur?
a. Side A
b. Side B
b. Side B
4. Solution 1 has a greater effective osmotic pressure than solution 2. Which one of these solutions has the greater tone?
a. Solution 1
b. Solution 2
a. Solution 1
5. What is the fate of erythrocytes that are placed into a hypotonic solution?
a. They increase in volume.
b. They decrease in volume.
c. There is no change in volume.
a. They increase in volume.
6. A membrane separates aqueous solution A from aqueous solution B. It is determined that solution A has the greater effective osmotic pressure. Therefore, water will diffuse from:
a. solution B to solution A.
b. solution A to solution B.
c. there would be no net diffusion of water
a. solution B to solution A.
7. Which one of the following body fluid compartments would represent about 40% of the body weight?
a. Transcellular
b. Intravascular
c. Intracellular
d. Extracellular
c. Intracellular
8. Interstitial fluid is a component of the:
a. intracellular fluid compartment.
b. extracellular fluid compartment.
c. transcellular fluid compartment.
b. extracellular fluid compartment.
9. Interstitial fluid is found:
a. within the cells.
b. between cells but outside blood vessels.
c. within the capillaries.
d. in body cavities.
b. between cells but outside blood vessels.
10. Hyaluronic acid (a component of the intercellular substance):
a. maintains an optimal pH of the ISF.
b. counteracts the effects of hyaluronidase.
c. is a highly hydrated gel that holds ISF in its interstices.
c. is a highly hydrated gel that holds ISF in its interstices.
11. Body fluid volumes were measured and the values were reported as milliliters per kilogram of body weight but in a scrambled order with no body compartment identification. Total body water was reported as 610 mL/kg body weight and the compartment volumes were reported as 170, 230, 380, and 60. Select the series below that corresponds with the values shown.
a. ECF, ICF, ISF, PV
b. PV, ISF, ECF, ICF
c. ISF, ECF, ICF, PV
d. ECF, ICF, ISF, PV WATER BALANCE
c. ISF, ECF, ICF, PV
12. Water lost from the body when air is exhaled or by evaporation from the skin is considered a vapor loss or insensible loss. It usually exceeds sensible losses, water lost in feces or urine.
a. True
b. False
b. False
13. The water requirement of a 1,000 lb (454 kg) cow is about 30 L each day. If a calf weighs 100 lb (23 kg) and has about one-fifth the body surface area of the cow, what would be its approximate water requirement each day?
a. 30 L
b. 3 L
c. 6 L
c. 6 L
14. The basal daily needs for water are directly related to:
a. body weight.
b. caloric expenditure and body surface area.
c. animal color.
b. caloric expenditure and body surface area.
15. More metabolic water is obtained from the metabolism of 100 g of fat than from 100 g of either protein or carbohydrate because:
a. animals drink more when eating fat.
b. more cofactors are reduced (and therefore need to be reoxidized) when fat is metabolized.
c. 1 g of fat is heavier than 1 g of either protein or carbohydrate.
b. more cofactors are reduced (and therefore need to be reoxidized) when fat is metabolized.
16. If the effective osmotic pressure in the plasma becomes greater than the effective osmotic pressure within the thirst cells in the hypothalamus, which of the following would be predicted?
a. The animal would seek water.
b. The animal would not seek water.
a. The animal would seek water.
17. Thirst can be stimulated by:
a. osmoconcentration of the extracellular fluid.
b. low blood pressure associated with blood loss.
c. both a and b.
c. both a and b.
18. Which one of the following solutions would cause a dog to begin drinking water (become thirsty) if it were infused into the dog’s blood?
a. Hypertonic NaCl
b. Isotonic NaCl
c. Hypotonic NaCl
a. Hypertonic NaCl
19. With continuing dehydration:
a. only water is depleted.
b. only electrolytes are depleted.
c. both water and electrolytes are depleted
c. both water and electrolytes are depleted
20. Which one of the following statements is correct as it relates to tolerance to dehydration?
a. Cattle have better tolerance than sheep.
b. Sheep have better tolerance than cattle and pigs.
c. Sheep, cattle, and pigs have the same tolerance.
d. Pigs have better tolerance than sheep.
b. Sheep have better tolerance than cattle and pigs.
21. During the heat of the day, which one of the following is most productive in conserving body water?
a. Elimination of body heat while it is being produced via evaporation
b. Storing body heat during the day while it is being produced and eliminating the heat when the ambient temperature is cooler
c. Retention of urine
b. Storing body heat during the day while it is being produced and eliminating the heat when the ambient temperature is cooler
1. The PCV of a hematocrit determination refers to the:
a. white cells and thrombocyte layer between the erythrocyte mass and plasma.
b. erythrocyte mass at the bottom.
c. yellowish liquid layer at the top of the hematocrit.
d. total length of the hematocrit tube content.
b. erythrocyte mass at the bottom.
2. Which one of the following most accurately approximates the amount of blood in an animal?
a. 2% of body weight
b. 16% of body weight
c. 8% of body weight
d. 24% of body weight
c. 8% of body weight
3. Arterial blood changes from a bright red color to a darker purplish color when it becomes venous blood. Which one of the following causes this?
a. Loss of oxygen
b. Gain of carbon dioxide
a. Loss of oxygen
4. A normal value for arterial blood pH would be closest to which one of the following values?
a. 3.8
b. 6.5
c. 7.4
d. 8.2
c. 7.4
5. The blood volume of a 25-kg dog is 2,000 mL, of which the plasma volume is 1,200 mL. What is the PCV of this dog?
a. 8%
b. 60%
c. 40%
d. Mitzie
c. 40%
6. Which WBC is most numerous in pigs, cows, sheep, and goats?
a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Monocyte
e. Basophil
c. Lymphocyte
7. The neutrophil is the most numerous leukocyte in all of the domestic species.
a. True
b. False
b. False
8. Which leukocyte will become a macrophage when it enters tissue spaces or becomes attached to certain blood channels?
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Monocyte
d. Monocyte
9. A differential WBC count and a total WBC count have been determined. Sixty of the 100 WBCs counted in the differential were determined to be neutrophils. The total WBC count was 10,000/μL. What is the absolute number of neutrophils?
a. 6,000/μL
b. 10,000/μL
c. 60%
d. 60/μL
a. 6,000/μL
10. Which one of the following leukocytes has as its function to provide immunity to antigens (foreign substances)?
a. Monocytes
b. Eosinophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Basophils
e. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes
11. A term that refers to a reduced number of leukocytes is:
a. anemia.
b. leukopenia.
c. leukocytosis.
d. polycythemia
b. leukopenia.
12. Which one of the following time periods would approximate the lifespan of erythrocytes in most domestic mammals?
a. 150 to 180 hours
b. 70 to 80 days
c. 80 to 150 days
d. 35 to 60 seconds
c. 80 to 150 days
13. Which one of the following best describes the hemoglobin molecule of blood?
a. Has ferric iron (Fe3+), combines with one molecule of oxygen
b. Has one heme group and one globin molecule
c. Has ferrous iron (Fe2+), combines with four molecules of oxygen
d. Has ferrous iron (Fe2+) when unoxygenated and ferric iron (Fe3+) when oxygenated
c. Has ferrous iron (Fe2+), combines with four molecules of oxygen
14. What is an approximate value for hemoglobin concentration in a normal healthy dog?
a. 5 g/dL
b. 20 g/dL
c. 15 g/dL
d. 10 g/dL
c. 15 g/dL
15. An erythrocyte just entering the bloodstream and having a net-like appearance because of polyribosomes and ribosomes is known as a/an:
a. reticulocyte.
b. rubriblast.
c. polychromatophilic rubricyte.
d. eosinophil.
a. reticulocyte.
16. Where is erythropoietin produced?
a. Bone marrow
b. Lungs
c. Spleen
d. Kidneys
d. Kidneys
17. Which one of the following represents the number of erythrocytes for most domestic species?
a. 7,000,000
b. 7,000,000 per microliter of blood
c. 7,000,000 per milliliter of blood
d. 7,000,000 per pound of body weight
b. 7,000,000 per microliter of blood
18. What is the stimulus for the production of erythropoietin?
a. Tissue need for oxygen
b. Iron deficiency
c. No stimulus, but constantly produced
d. Sympathetic division of ANS
a. Tissue need for oxygen
19. Erythropoiesis refers to:
a. blood coagulation.
b. the recycling of iron.
c. the disintegration scheme for RBCs.
d. RBC production.
d. RBC production.
20. A reddish color of plasma that may be coupled with a red color of urine is caused by:
a. hemoglobin.
b. bilirubin.
c. iron.
d. bilinogen.
a. hemoglobin.
21. Which body organ is the site at which insoluble bilirubin that is released from MPS cells is made soluble before its transport to the intestine?
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Bone marrow
d. Spleen
b. Liver
22. When an erythrocyte is disintegrated, the hemoglobin remains intact and is incorporated into new RBCs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
23. Icterus is present in a dog. Severe liver disease is apparent. Which form of bilirubin would be the most likely cause of the icterus?
a. Free bilirubin
b. Conjugated bilirubin
c. Biliboy
a. Free bilirubin
24. Free hemoglobin, from intravascular hemolysis:
a. invariably results in hemoglobinuria.
b. is too large a molecule to enter the kidney tubules.
c. when combined with haptoglobin will not enter the kidney tubules.
d. combines with haptoglobin in all circumstances.
c. when combined with haptoglobin will not enter the kidney tubules.
25. What is the name of the transport form of iron?
a. Hemosiderin
b. Transferrin
c. Ferritin
d. Iron ore
b. Transferrin
26. To avoid toxicity, iron is transported in the blood and/or stored in cells bound with a protein in its:
a. ferric (Fe3+) oxidation state.
b. ferrous (Fe2+) oxidation state.
a. ferric (Fe3+) oxidation state.
27. Because the absorption of iron is relatively controlled, based on need, it is impossible to observe conditions of iron toxicity from excess ingestion.
a. True
b. False
b. False
28. Which one of the iron forms would be most visible in the liver cells during times of excessive Hb degradation, e.g., hemolytic disease?
a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin
c. Transferrin
d. Ferrous iron (Fe2+)
a. Hemosiderin
29. Someone tells you that the hemoglobin concentration in a baby pig is 4 g/dL. What would you say is the status of that pig?
a. Normal
b. Anemic
c. Leukopenic
d. Polycythemic
b. Anemic
30. A sheep presented with an RBC count of 6.0 × 106 /μL and a hemoglobin concentration of 5 g/dL:
a. would not be considered anemic because the RBC numbers are approximately normal.
b. would be considered anemic because both RBC and Hb are below the normal range.
c. would be considered anemic because only the Hb is below the normal range.
d. would not be considered anemic because both RBC and Hb are in the normal range.
b. would be considered anemic because both RBC and Hb are below the normal range.
31. Polycythemia vera is:
a. rare in animals.
b. a form of anemia.
c. associated with a low PCV (red cell mass).
d. associated with hypoxemia, tumors, and elevated erythropoietin production.
a. rare in animals.
32. Without supplemental iron, anemia is common in baby pigs because of:
a. rapid growth and increase in blood volume.
b. sow’s milk deficient in iron.
c. lack of iron for ingestion in the environment.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
33. Which one of the following cells assists in hemostasis (prevention of blood loss)?
a. Basophil
b. Platelet
c. Erythrocyte
d. Lymphocyte
b. Platelet
34. The mesh of the blood clot is:
a. thrombin.
b. fibrin.
c. fibrinogen
d. prothrombin.
b. fibrin.
35. Which one of the following cations plays an important role in blood coagulation?
a. Na+
b. Mg2+
c. K+
d. Ca2+
d. Ca2+
36. Which one of the following substances provides for the breakdown of fibrin-to-fibrin degradation products?
a. Plasmin
b. Thromboxane A2
c. Fibrinogen
d. EDTA
a. Plasmin
37. Nearly all of the clotting factors are:
a. carbohydrates.
b. proteins.
c. lipids.
d. minerals.
b. proteins.
38. Most, but not all, of the clotting factors are produced in the:
a. kidney.
b. lung.
c. liver.
d. intestinal epithelium.
c. liver.
39. Loss of individual integrity, fusion of lipoprotein membranes, and exposure of receptors for coagulation factors is characteristic for:
a. platelet adhesion.
b. platelet activation.
c. platelet release reaction.
d. platelet aggregation.
d. platelet aggregation.
40. Tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA) is associated with:
a. heparin production.
b. initiation of the extrinsic mechanism of blood coagulation.
c. erythrocyte production.
d. fibrin degradation.
d. fibrin degradation.
41. What substance is formed during the coagulation process that converts fibrinogen to fibrin?
a. Thromboxane A2
b. Thromboplastin
c. Thrombin
d. Prothrombin
c. Thrombin
42. The prothrombinase complex (FXa, FVa, phospholipids, and Ca2+):
a. is the same as the tenase complex.
b. activates factor IX.
c. catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
d. is activated only via the TF-FVIIa complex.
c. catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
43. Blood withdrawn from mammals, without endothelial damage, into glass tubes will clot via:
a. the TF–FVIIa complex pathway (extrinsic system).
b. the (FIXa–FVIIIa–PL–Ca2+) tenase complex (intrinsic system).
c. both a and b.
d. it will not clot.
b. the (FIXa–FVIIIa–PL–Ca2+) tenase complex (intrinsic system).
44. Protein C:
a. promotes blood coagulation.
b. is activated by the thrombomodulin-thrombin bond and limits the generation of thrombin.
c. becomes a part of antithrombin III.
d. is a vitamin that prevents scurvy.
b. is activated by the thrombomodulin-thrombin bond and limits the generation of thrombin.
45. Antithrombin III:
a. is not a normal plasma protein.
b. must combine with heparin to be effective.
c. blocks the action of thrombin on fibrinogen.
d. promotes fibrin formation by deactivating the prothrombinase complex.
c. blocks the action of thrombin on fibrinogen.
46. Heparin:
a. is produced by mast cells in pericapillary tissues.
b. is an important anticoagulant in the lungs.
c. combines with antithrombin III for its effectiveness.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
47. The use of chelating agents in tubes used for withdrawing blood:
a. promotes blood coagulation.
b. allows for the collection of serum.
c. binds calcium and prevents blood coagulation.
d. assists the analysis for calcium concentration.
c. binds calcium and prevents blood coagulation.
48. Which one of the following timeframes would be considered a normal clotting time for domestic mammals (capillary tube method)?
a. 20 to 30 seconds
b. 20 to 30 minutes
c. 2 to 5 seconds
d. 2 to 5 minutes
d. 2 to 5 minutes
49. The vitamin needed for the production of prothrombin and factors VII, IX, and X is:
a. C.
b. D.
c. E.
d. K.
d. K.
Note 
Flashcard (59)