Ch. 3 : Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace

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87 Terms

1
New cards

(Refer to figure 49) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

A - landing

B - taxiing and takeoff

C - taxiing and landing

(B) taxiing and takeoff

The portion of the runway identified by the letter A in Fig. 49 is a displaced threshold, as marked by arrows from the beginning of the runway pointing to the displaced threshold, which means it may be used or taxiing or takeoffs, but not for landings

<p>(B) taxiing and takeoff</p><p>The portion of the runway identified by the letter A in Fig. 49 is a displaced threshold, as marked by arrows from the beginning of the runway pointing to the displaced threshold, which means it may be used or taxiing or takeoffs, but not for landings</p>
2
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(Refer to figure 49) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

A - Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft

B - Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing potion of this runway begins at position B

C - The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B

(B) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B

<p>(B) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B</p>
3
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(Refer to figure 49) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

A - "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun

B - "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun

C - "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings

(A) "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun

<p>(A) "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun</p>
4
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(Refer to figure 49) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a

A - stabilized area

B - multiple heliport

C - closed runway

(C) closed runway

<p>(C) closed runway</p>
5
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The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A - 009 and 027 true

B - 090 and 270 true

C - 090 and 270 magnetic

(C) 090 and 270 magnetic

6
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An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

A - there are obstructions on the airport

B - that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

C - the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation

(B) that the weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

less than 1,000ft ceiling or 3 SM visibility

7
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A lighted heliport may be identified by a

A - green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

B - flashing yellow light

C - blue lighted square landing area

(A) green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

8
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A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

A - white and green alternating flashes

B - two quick, white flashes between green flashes

C - green, yellow, and white flashes

(B) two quick, white flashes between green flashes

9
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How can a military airport be identified at night?

A - Alternate white and green light flashes

B - Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

C - White flashing lights with steady green at the same location

(B) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

10
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Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

A - white directional lights

B - blue omnidirectional lights

C - alternate red and green lights

(B) blue omnidirectional lights

11
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To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it

A - one time

B - three times

C - five times

(C) five times

12
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Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A - Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary

B - Make all turns to the left

C - Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

(C) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

13
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(Refer to figure 51) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

A - left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18

B - left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36

C - right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27

(A)

<p>(A)</p>
14
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(Refer to figure 51) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

A - south of the airport

B - north of the airport

C - southeast of the airport

(C) southeast of the airport

<p>(C) southeast of the airport</p>
15
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(Refer to figure 51) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a

A - right-quartering headwind

B - left-quartering headwind

C - right-quartering tailwind

(A) right-quartering headwind

<p>(A) right-quartering headwind</p>
16
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(Refer to figure 51) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

A - Right-hand traffic on Runway 9

B - Right-hand traffic on Runway 18

C - Left-hand traffic on Runway 36

(C) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36

wind is coming from the northwest and Runway 36 will have a quartering headwind

<p>(C) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36</p><p>wind is coming from the northwest and Runway 36 will have a quartering headwind</p>
17
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(Refer to figure 50) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

A - Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right

B - Runway 22 directly into the wind

C - Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right

(A) Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right

The tetrahedron points to the wind which is from the southwest. The landing should be into the wind

<p>(A) Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right</p><p>The tetrahedron points to the wind which is from the southwest. The landing should be into the wind</p>
18
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(Refer to figure 50) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area

A - may be used only for taxiing

B - is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing

C - cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

(C) cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

(displaced thresholds)

<p>(C) cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff</p><p>(displaced thresholds)</p>
19
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(Refer to figure 50) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing

A - Left-hand traffic and Runway 18

B - Right-hand traffic and Runway 18

C - Left-hand traffic and runway 22

(B) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18

<p>(B) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18</p>
20
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An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

A - a white light signal

B - a green light signal

C - an amber light signal

(B) a green light signal

The tri-color VASI has three lights: amber for above the glide slope, green for on the glide slope, and red for below the glide slope

21
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An above glide slop indication from a trip-color VASI is

A - a white light signal

B - a green light signal

C - an amber light signal

(C) an amber light signal

The tri-color VASI has three lights: amber for above the glide slope, green for on the glide slope, and red for below the glide slope

22
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A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

A - red light signal

B - pink light signal

C - green light signal

(A) red light signal

The tri-color VASI has three lights: amber for above the glide slope, green for on the glide slope, and red for below the glide slope

23
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A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A - pulsating white light

B - ready white light

C - pulsating red light

(C) pulsating red light

A pulsating VASI indicator normally consists of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below glide slope indication is a pulsating red, the above glide slop is pulsating white, and the on glide slope is a steady white light

24
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(Refer to figure 48) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is

A - above the glide slope

B - Below the glide slope

C - on the glide slope

(B) Below the glide slope

<p>(B) Below the glide slope</p>
25
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(Refer to figure 48) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is

A - off course to the left

B - above the glide slope

C - below the glide slope

(B) above the glide slope

<p>(B) above the glide slope</p>
26
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(Refer to figure 48) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is

A - below the glide slope

B - on the glide slope

C - above the glide slope

(B) on the glide slope

<p>(B) on the glide slope</p>
27
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When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

A - maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold

B - maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

C - remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar

(B) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

28
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A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator (PAPI) is

A - four white lights

B - three white lights and one red light

C - two white lights and two red lights

(B) three white lights and one red light

29
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Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A - maintain a 3* glide to the runway

B - maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

C - stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing

(B) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

30
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Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

A - operating at high airspeeds

B - heavily loaded

C - developing lift

(C) developing lift

Wingtip vortices are produced only when an airplane is developing lift

31
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Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

A - sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

B - rise into the traffic pattern

C - rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway

(A) sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

wingtip vortices sink, not rise

32
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When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

A - rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path

B - rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport

C - sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

(C) sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

33
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The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

A - light, dirty, and fast

B - heavy, dirty, and fast

C - heavy, clean, and slow

(C) heavy, clean, and slow

34
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The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

A - light, quartering headwind

B - light, quartering tailwind

C - strong headwind

(B) light, quartering tailwind

35
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When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

A - below and downwind from the heavy aircraft

B - above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

C - below and upwind from the heavy aircraft

(B) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

The proper procedure for departing behind a large aircraft is to rotate prior to the large aircraft's rotation point, then fly above and upwind of the large aircraft. Since vortices sink and drift downwind this should keep you clear

36
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When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

A - above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

B - below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point

C - above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point

(A) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

37
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During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the. same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A - the other aircraft is crossing to the left

B - the other aircraft is crossing to the right

C - the other aircraft is approaching head-on

(A) the other aircraft is crossing to the left

Airplane position lights consist of a steady red light on the left wing (looking forward), a green light on the right wing, and a white light on the tail. Accordingly, if you observe a steady red light, you are look at the tip of the left wing, which means the other plane is traveling from your right to left (crossing to the left). The red flashing light is the beacon.

38
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During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A - the other aircraft is flying away from you

B - the other aircraft is crossing to the left

C - the other aircraft is crossing to the right

(A) the other aircraft is flying away from you

A steady white light (the tail light) indicates the other airplane is moving away from you. The flashing red light is the beacon light

39
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During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A - the other aircraft is crossing to the left

B - the other aircraft is flying away from you

C - the other aircraft is approaching head-on

(C) the other aircraft is approaching head-on

If you observe steady red and green lights at the same altitude, the other airplane is approaching head-on. You should take evasive action to the right

40
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The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

A - regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions

B - a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

C - peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

(B) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

41
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The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

A - regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions

B - a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector

C - peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing

(C) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing

42
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How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

A - The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate

B - The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space

C - There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

(C) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

43
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Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

A - check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications

B - visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

C - announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF

(B) visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

44
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What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

A - Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

B - Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes

C - Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude

(A) Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

45
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Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

A - the controlling agency

B - all pilots

C - Air Traffic Control

(B) all pilots

46
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After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

A - when advised by the tower to do so

B - prior to turning off the runway

C - after reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area

(A) when advised by the tower to do so

47
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If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

A - via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto Runway 9

B - to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

C - via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made

(A) via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto Runway 9

48
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Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

A - pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction

B - nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion

C - non control information in selected high-activity terminal areas

(C) non control information in selected high-activity terminal areas

49
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A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

A - Class B

B - Class C

C - Class D

(C) Class D

Class B = solid blue circle

Class C = solid magenta circle

50
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Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

A - when the weather minimums are below basic VFR

B - when the associated control tower is in operation

C - when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation

(B) when the associated control tower is in operation

51
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A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications to be established and maintained with the

A - satellite airport's UNICOM

B - associated Flight Service Station

C - primary airport's control tower

(C) primary airport's control tower

52
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Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs

A - at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions

B - at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR

C - at all tower controlled airports within Class D. airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR

(A) at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions

53
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The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

A - the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace

B - 5 statue miles from the geographical center of the primary airport

C - the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

(C) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

54
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Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should

A - monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories

B - contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern

C - contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories

(C) contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories

55
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The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is

A - 5 nautical miles

B - 15 nautical miles

C - 20 nautical miles

(C) 20 nautical miles

56
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All operations within Class C airspace must be in

A - accordance with instrument flight rules

B - compliance with ATC clearances and instructions

C - an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability

(C) an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability

57
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The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

A - 1,200 feet AGL

B - 3,000 feet AGL

C - 4,000 feet AGL

(C) 4,000 feet AGL

58
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Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

A - the pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure

B - the pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace

C - the pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

(C) the pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable

59
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Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

A - Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

B - Contact the tower and request permission to enter

C - Contact the FSS for traffic advisories

(A) Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

60
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TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

A - IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft

B - warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft

C - sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft

(C) sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft

61
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From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

A - Clearance delivery

B - Tower, just before takeoff

C - Ground control, on initial contact

(C) Ground control, on initial contact

62
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Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

A - safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

B - mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program

C - wind-sheer warning at participating airports

(A) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

63
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If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code...

A - 0000

B - 1200

C - 4096

(B) 1200

64
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When making routine transponder code charges pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

A - 0700, 1700, 7000

B - 1200, 1500, 7000

C - 7500, 7600, 7700

(C) 7500, 7600, 7700

7500 = hijacking

7600 = lost radio communications

7700 - general emergency

65
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When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

A - 1200

B - 7600

C - 7700

(A) 1200

66
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When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is...

A - "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

B - "MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

C - "MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

A - "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

When calling a ground station, pilots should begin with the name of the facility and the type of facility. Any FSS is referred to as "Radio." When the aircraft manufacturer's name or model is stated, the prefix "N" is dropped. When transmitting and receiving on different frequencies, indicate the name of the VOR or frequency on which a reply is expected.

67
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The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A - "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."

B - "FOUR POINT FIVE."

C - "FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."

(A) "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED"

68
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The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A - "TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET."

B - "TEN POINT FIVE."

C - "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."

(C) "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."

69
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090*

"TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND..."

where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A - East

B - South

C - West

(B) South

70
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360*:

"TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..."

where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A - Northwest

B - Northeast

C - Southwest

(A) Northwest

71
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight:

"TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..."

where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A - Between directly ahead and 90* to the left

B - Between directly behind and 90* to the right

C - Between directly ahead and 90* to the right

(C) Between directly ahead and 90* to the right

72
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:

"TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..."

where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A - South

B - North

C - West

(C) West

73
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While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

A - discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land

B - exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

C - abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing

(B) exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

74
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A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

A - is cleared to land

B - should give way to other aircraft and continue circling

C - should return for landing

(A) is cleared to land

75
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A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

A - taxi at a faster speed

B - taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways

C - return to the starting point on the airport

(C) return to the starting point on the airport

76
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If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

A - flashing red

B - steady red

C - alternating red and green

(B) steady red

77
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Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

A - Flashing green

B - Steady green

C - Flashing white

(A) Flashing green

78
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An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

A - hold position

B - exercise extreme caution

C - not land; the airport is unsafe

(B) exercise extreme caution

79
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If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

A - Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

B - Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings

C - Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport

(A) Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

80
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When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

A - 118.0 and 118.8 MHz

B - 121.5 and 243.0 MHz

C - 123.0 and 119.0 MHz

(B) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz

81
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Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

A - Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing

B - Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal

C - Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

(C) Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

82
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The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that

A - this airport is designated as an airport of entry

B - the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station

C - this airport has a direct-line phone to the Flight Service Station

(B) the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station

The VHF/Direction Finder (DF) facility is a ground operation that displays the magnetic direction of the airplane from the station each time the airplane communication radio transmits a signal to it. It is used by ATC and are from the receiving station

83
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To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a

A - VHF transmitter and receiver

B - 4096-code transponder

C - VOR receiver and DME

(A) VHF transmitter and receiver

84
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Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

A - Recreational pilots only

B - Military pilots

C - Student Pilots

(C) Student pilots

85
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Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A - Pilot-in-Command

B - Owner/operator

C - Second-in-command

(A) Pilot-in-Command

86
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When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A - When it will compromise safety

B - Only when the tower operator concurs

C - Pilots can not decline clearance

(A) When it will compromise safety

87
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Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

A - Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

B - 14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules

C - Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

(A) Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)