E3 pharm - immunizations

5.0(2)
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/64

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

65 Terms

1
New cards

Passive or active immunity?

• Protection transferred from another person or animal as antibody

• Immediate protection

Passive

2
New cards

Passive - immune sera

Human sources (transplacental, breast-feeding)

3
New cards

Passive - immunoglobulin

Sterile homologous solutions containing pooled antibody

4
New cards

Passive - antitoxin

Heterologous hyperimmune serum

Produced from equine sources (horse)

5
New cards

Passive or active immunity?

• Protection produced by a person's own immune system

• Delayed protection

• e.g. natural disease, vaccines

Active

6
New cards

What type of vaccine?

Cultivated to disable their virulence, response similar to illness

Live attenuated

7
New cards

What type of vaccine?

• Whole micro-organisms killed by chemical or heat

• Need repeated dosing

Killed/inactivated

8
New cards

What type of vaccine?

• Toxoids - Inactive toxic compounds from micro-organisms

• Subunit - A fragment of an inactive or attenuated micro-organism

Protein based

9
New cards

What type of vaccine?

• Conjugate - Polysaccharide outer coating attached to proteins

Polysaccharide based

10
New cards

What type of vaccine?

• From pooled donor blood plasma (IgG)

• Passive immunity

Immune sera

11
New cards

Pure or conjugate polysaccharide vaccine?

• T-cell independent antigens

• Offer little/no protection to children < 2 years

• Repeat doses do not cause booster response in titer

Pure polysaccharide

12
New cards

Pure or conjugate polysaccharide vaccine?

• T-cell dependent – increases immunogenicity

• Effective in children as young as 2 months of age

Copnjugate polysaccharide

13
New cards

What timing/spacing can be done when giving 2 or more inactive vaccines together?

Simultaneously or at any interval

14
New cards

What timing/spacing can be done when giving a inactive and a live vaccine together?

Simultaneously or at any interval

15
New cards

What timing/spacing can be done when giving 2 ore more live vaccines together?

4 weeks, if not simultaneously

16
New cards

What may reduce live vaccine efficacy, as well as pose a risk for disseminated infection?

Immunosuppression

17
New cards

What conditions are contraindicated for both live & inactivated vaccines?

• Anaphylactic allergy to a component of the vaccine

• Encephalopathy

18
New cards

What conditions are contraindicated for live vaccines?

• Anaphylactic allergy to a component of the vaccine

• Encephalopathy

• Pregnancy

• Immunosuppression

19
New cards

Can you give a inactivated vaccine to a pregnant patient?

Yes

20
New cards

Can you give a inactivated vaccine to a immunosuppressed patient?

Yes

21
New cards

Can you give a inactivated vaccine to someone who recently received a blood product?

Yes

22
New cards

What conditions should you be precautious when administering a live or inactived vaccine?

Patient w/ a severe illness

23
New cards

Should you be precautious when administering a live vaccine to a patient who recently received a blood product?

Yes

24
New cards

Which HPV vaccines is a quadrivalent vaccine for HPV types 6, 11, 16, 18?

Gardasil®

25
New cards

Which HPV vaccines is indicated for prevention of HPV related cervical cancer, cervical cancer precursors, vaginal and vulvar cancer precursors, and anogenital warts?

Gardasil®

26
New cards

Which HPV vaccines is used for HPV type 16 & 18?

Cervarix

27
New cards

True or false?

Routine HPV vaccination is recommended for adolescents 11-12 years of age

True

28
New cards

What vaccination is recommended for all persons 9 - 26 years of age not previously vaccinated?

HPV vaccine

29
New cards

True or false?

HPV vaccine should be administered after the onset of sexual activity

False, before

30
New cards

True or false?

HPV vaccine will have no effect on the existing disease or infection

True

31
New cards

When given an HPV vaccine, is there a change in recommended cervical cancer screenings?

No

32
New cards

What vaccination is recommended for all persons 6 months and older who do not have a contraindication to the vaccine?

Influenza

33
New cards

Which influenza vaccine(s)?

• Inactivated vaccine (IIV)

• Approved for persons aged > 6 months

• Children less than 9 years getting a vaccination for the first time should get 2 doses (4 week intervals between doses)

Fluzone, Fluvirin, Fluarix, FluLaval

34
New cards

What influenza vaccine is made without egg proteins?

Recombinant influenza vaccine (RIV, FluBlok®)

35
New cards

Which influenza vaccine?

• Live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)

• Intranasal administration

• Approved for healthy persons aged 2-49 years

FluMist®

36
New cards

What are the contraindications for FluMist®?

• Severe allergic reaction (including egg protein)

• Concomitant aspirin use in children/adolescents

37
New cards

What populations is FluMist® not recommended for?

• Pregnant women

• Immunosuppressed

• Egg allergy

• Children 2-4 years with asthma/wheezing episode

• Antivirals within 48 hours

38
New cards

What are the rabies immune globins?

Human derived (HRIG) 20 IU/kg - preferred in the US

Equine derived (ERIG) 40 IU/kg

39
New cards

Which rabies vaccines are human diploid cell vaccines?

HDCV, Imovax

40
New cards

Which rabies vaccines are purified chick embryo cell vaccines?

PCECV, RabAvert

41
New cards

True or false?

You should never administer a rabies vaccine in the deltoid

False, gluteal area (deltoid is preferred)

42
New cards

What is the only vaccine-preventable disease that is not contagious?

Tetanus

43
New cards

How does Tetanus work?

Blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (glycine and GABA)

44
New cards

What form of tetanus vaccine provides protection for 10 years and is given for wound care management with diptheria (Td)?

Tetanus toxoid

45
New cards

What form of tetanus vaccine is indicated for more serious wounds in unvaccinated individuals?

Tetanus Ig

46
New cards

Where is immunoglobulin IgG derived from?

Pooled donor plasma (purified)

47
New cards

What is the ADEs of IVIG?

• Sensitization

• Rate related chills, N/V (start low and go slow)

48
New cards

What are the different type of RhO(D) immunoglobulin vaccines?

WinRho, HyperRHO, RhoGAM

49
New cards

What patient population is the RhO(D) immunoglobulin administerd to?

Patients who are RhO(D) negative and may be exposed to RhO(D) positive erythrocytes

50
New cards

What can result if a RhO(D) negative mother mounts a response to a newborn?

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

51
New cards

True or false?

You should not give RhO(D) immunoglobulin to patients who are RhO(D) positive or have anti-RhO antibodies

True

52
New cards

What is the MOA of the spike protein SARS-CoV-2 vaccines?

• Binds to ACE2 receptors to induce membrane fusion

• Antibodies bind to spike protein and prevents fusion

53
New cards

What SARS-CoV-2 vaccines are mRNA vaccines?

Pfizer

Moderna

54
New cards

What SARS-CoV-2 vaccines are adenoviral vector vaccines?

Johnson & Johnson

55
New cards

What SARS-CoV-2 vaccines are protein adjuvant?

Novavax

56
New cards

What type of SARS-CoV-2 vaccine platform?

• Injected mRNA stay in the cytoplasm (no DNA interaction)

• RNA translated to produce spike protein

RNA vaccines

57
New cards

What type of SARS-CoV-2 vaccine platform?

• Uses modified virus (adenovirus)

• Engineered to express spike protein

• Virus may or may not replicate

Vector vaccines

58
New cards

What type of SARS-CoV-2 vaccine platform?

• Contains spike protein to stimulate a response

Protein adjuvant

59
New cards

MOA of Nirmatrelvir

Inhibits SARS-CoV-2 protease (Mpro) = virus can't produce mature proteins

60
New cards

MOA of Ritonavir

PK booster = inhibits CYP3A to boost drug levels

61
New cards

Nirmatrelvir-ritonavir (Paxlovid) is not recommended when a patient has what kind of impairment?

Renal/hepatic impairment

62
New cards

What SARS-CoV-2 treatment has a risk for rebound COVID?

Nirmatrelvir-ritonavir (Paxlovid)

63
New cards

MOA of Remdesivir (Veklury)

Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRP)

64
New cards

What SARS-CoV-2 treatment is administered parenterally and is used in hospitalized patients who cannot receive Nirmatrelvir-ritonavir (Paxlovid)?

Remdesivir (Veklury)

65
New cards

What are the ADEs of Remdesivir (Veklury)?

Hyperglycemia, reduced GFR/increased SCr