LabCE Comp. adaptive MLS

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Last updated 8:13 AM on 9/27/23
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203 Terms

1
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What is the focus of both Lean principles and the 6 Sigma methodology?

Process improvements

2
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Which of the following hemoglobin is replaced by hemoglobin H (HbH) after birth in individuals with HbH disease?

Bart's

3
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The serum that will agglutinate group A1 cells?

A2 individual

4
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Principle of KB test?

Fetal cells present in the mother's blood smear contain Hgb F. When treated with acid the fetal cells are resistant and will stain pink with the counterstain.

5
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A HbA1C results for a diabetic patient is 6.0%. What conclusion can be made regarding this patient's carbohydrate management?

The patient is compliant with diet and medication

6
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Which of the following additives should be used for the collection of a sample for blood gas analysis?

Heparin

7
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Which group of analytes would most likely be increased in type I diabetic patient in crisis?

Ketone bodies and blood glucose

8
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Which of the following factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway?

9, 11, 12

9
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Which of the following items must be labeled with a biohazard label or be colored red/orange to indicate it is a biohazard?

A container that is used for disposal of needles in the blood collection area.

10
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When performing an antibody screen, both screen cells are 4+ at immediate spin and weak + at AHG. The antibody panel shows 4+ reactions at immediate spin and W+ reaction at AHG and there is no specific match to the reaction pattern. The auto control is negative. What would be the logical next step?

Repeat testing using warmed patient sample; reagent and just do AHG reading

11
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Increase in the MB fraction of CK is associated with:

Myocardial infarction

12
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Which of the following describe normal lymphocyte characteristics?

Round to oval nucleus comprising 90% of the cell with blue cytoplasm

13
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The term TITER is best defined as:

Reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution

14
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The dimorphic fungi that may produce black, yeast-like colonies after prolonged incubation at 37 C is:

Sporothrix schenckii

15
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A feature that characterizes various Nematode species is:

Filariform larvae may serve as an infective form for humans

16
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Which Protein is not an acute phase protein?

Protein S

17
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Koch's postulates include all of the following EXCEPT which statement?

Isolated organism, when injected into a human host, will produce the disease

18
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Acinetobacter spp. are similar to Neisseria spp. EXCEPT Acinetobacter spp. are generally:

Oxidase negative

19
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Bordet-Gengou plates are used to isolate:

Bordetella pertussis

20
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Which of the following choices best describes the primary function of antibodies?

Binds with antigens

21
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Which T lymphocyte expresses the CD8+ marker and acts specifically to kill tumor or virally-infected cell?

T cytotoxic

22
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Correct order of erythrocyte maturation in the bone marrow?

Pronormoblast

Basophilic normoblast

Polychromatophilic normoblast

Orthochromic normoblast

Polychromatophilic erythrocyte

23
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True statement about gram-positive bacteria:

They resist acetone-alcohol decolorization

24
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Which of the following statements best describes a normal mature erythrocyte?

A biconcave disc, 4-8 uM in diameter, that stains pinkish-orange in color

25
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Why is Rh immune globulin administered within 72 hours of delivery to an Rh negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak-D positive?

Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother

26
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With the widespread use of pneumococcal vaccine, there has been a decline in the incidence of community-acquired pneumonia by which of the following organisms?

S. pneumonia

27
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What principle(s) of flow cytometry is employed when performing immunophenotyping?

Fluorescent antibody tagging and light scatter

28
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The name of a reaction between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site is:

Affinity

29
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The primary purpose of neutrophil granules is to:

Provide microbicidal action

30
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High levels of lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A2 (Lp-PLA2) are associated with:

Increased cardiovascular risk

31
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What would be the logical first step to obtain correct values when the following results were obtained on an electronic particle counter in hematology for an alcoholic patient?

Check and correct for lipemia

32
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A Cytochrome P450 2D6 (CYP2D6) ultrarapid metabolizer (UM) would require ___ dose of an active drug (non-prodrug) that is metabolized by CYP2D6 than a CYP2D6 extensive metabolizer (EM).

A higher

33
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Which of the following is true concerning atherosclerosis?

Atherosclerosis is the deposition of plaques containing cholesterol and lipids on the innermost layer of the walls of large and medium-sized arteries

34
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The following factors are measured by either the PT or aPTT EXCEPT:

Factor XIII (13)

35
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Which of the following antibodies is most often implicated as a cause of delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR)?

Anti-Jka

36
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Which of the following infectious agents represent the greatest risk to the lab worker?

Hepatitis

37
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How would you describe the appearance of a mature monocyte seen in a Wright's stained peripheral blood smear?

Blue-gray opaque cytoplasm. Nucleus may have convolutions

38
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The Lecithin/Sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio determination of amniotic fluid is useful in assessing the probability of:

Respiratory distress syndrome

39
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Which of the following statements regarding use of extension cords in a healthcare facility is NOT true?

An extension cord used in a healthcare facility can be either a 2-prong or 3-prong cord

40
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Which of the following enzymes, produced by S.aureus is responsible for preventing penicillin antibiotics from being effective?

Beta-lactamase

41
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Antibodies in the Rh system typically exhibit which one of the following characteristics?

Reacts best at 37C & AHG

42
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Which of the following specimens would NOT be considered suitable for anaerobic culture?

Throat swab

43
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be spread from person to person via which transmission method?

Airborne

44
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An abdominal wound culture grows E. coli on the aerobic culture. The anaerobic culture has growth of 2, gn rods, one of which is aerobic. The other gn rod has 2+ growth on BBE plate and is resistant to kanamycin, colistin, & vancomycin disc. What is the organism's ID?

Bacteroides fragility group

45
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Which type of blood components is most implicated in bacterial contamination?

Platelets

46
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Urine specimen was collected early morning and was accidentally left in bright sunlight and at room temperature on a counter in the outpatient clinic. The test order is for urine bilirubin screening. Which of the following could occur as a result of the storage conditions?

False-negative test result

47
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The primary site of reabsorption of glomerular filtrate is the:

Proximal convoluted tubule

48
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Which coagulation factors are referred to as "vitamin-K dependent"?

Factors II, VII, IX, X (2, 7, 9, 10)

49
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What is not normally present in bone marrow?

Ringed sideroblast

50
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Which immune elements are involved in a POSITIVE TB skin test?

T cells & macrophages

51
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Parasites which can be found in urinary sediment include all of the following EXCEPT?

Plasmodium malariae

52
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Which of the following is a bronchodilator used to treat a 39 y.o. male asthmatic patient?

Theophylline

53
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Which of the following statements regarding the L/S ratio is TRUE?

A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

54
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Which of the following fungal infections is endemic in the Southwestern United States desert regions?

Coccidioidomycosis

55
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A copper reduction method is performed on pediatric specimens in order to check for the presence of:

Reducing substances

56
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A hospitalized patient has decreased serum copper level and increased urine copper level. This is MOST consistent with:

Wilson's disease

57
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What must be true for the anti globulin phase of the serologic crossmatch to be omitted?

The antibody screen must be negative and there is no history of detection of unexpected antibodies

58
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Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best characterized by which of the following:

Bacitracin sensitivity

59
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EDTA and Sodium citrate combine w/ ___ to inhibit coagulation in blood samples.

Calcium

60
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What does the "hh" phenotype give rise too?

Bombay phenotype

61
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The biochemical testing results of an alpha-hemolytic streptococcus show that the isolate is bile esculin (+), but does NOT grow in presence of 6.5% NaCl. The most probable ID of the isolate is:

Group D streptococcus, non-enterococcus

62
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Frozen red blood cells have been thawed, deglycerolized and reconstituted in an open system must be used within:

24 hours

63
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_____ is predominantly associated with skin and soft tissue infections (SSTIs), such as abscesses, cellulitis, folliculitis, and impetigo.

Community acquired MRSA

64
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While serum elevations are NOT generally seen in early stages, which of the following tumor markers are elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer?

CA 15-3 & CA-549

65
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Which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population?

CDe/ce

66
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What is the first line treatment for moderate to severe hemophilia A?

Lyophilized Factor 8 Concentrate

67
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Which risk marker has both positive and negative cardiovascular risk integrated into its measurement?

Apo-B-100/Apo A-1

68
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When evaluating a patient for a suspected Wilson's disease diagnosis, low values of plasma ceruloplasmin would be expected along with:

Increased urine copper

69
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Which of the following 2 media are appropriate for Bordetella pertussis isolation?

Regan-Lowe charcoal agar and Bordet Gengou media

70
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The American Diabetes Association (ADA) guidelines recommend screening all asymptomatic individuals age 45 and older for diabetes. If the screen is negative:

The screening should be repeated every 3 years

71
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Increased concentration of alpha-fetoprotein in adults are most characteristically associated with:

Hepatocellular carcinoma

72
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Which type of antibody can cause HDFN in any pregnancy (first or subsequent), but is usually limited to less severe symptoms?

Anti-A, B

73
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B lymphocytes & T lymphocytes are derived from:

Hematopoietic stem cells

74
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Following the treatment of an IgG molecule with papain, which of the following will remain?

2 Fab fragments each with a light chain & a partial heavy chain attached w/ a disulfide bond

75
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The lymphocyte subtype that controls autoimmunity in the peripheral blood is:

T-regulatory

76
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Which of the following proteins has the fastest electrophoretic mobility?

Albumin

77
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The ultimate end product of both epinephrine & norepinephrine metabolism is:

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

78
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How is the Mean Cell Volume (MCV) calculated?

(Hct % / RBCs ) x 10

79
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A physician needs to prescribe a drug to a patient but the drug has a narrow therapeutic window. He is concerned about possible toxic effects. To assess the upper concentration such a drug, which time for drawing the specimen do you think makes the most sense?

Approximately one hour after an oral dose

80
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The traditional PCR procedure has 3 important functions & include all of the following EXCEPT:

Amplifies RNA

81
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To determine if an elevated APTT is caused by a factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor when the PT is normal the FIRST step would be:

Mix 1 part patient plasma & 1 part normal pooled plasma & repeat the APTT

82
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Which analyte measurement is used to detect early nephropathy in a diabetic patient?

albumin

83
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Which of the following statements best describes Rh antibodies?

Immune, IgG

84
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All of the following conditions are associated with a polyclonal increase in gamma globulins EXCEPT?

Immunodeficiency

85
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Which of the following represents the approximate percentage of the Caucasian population that is Rh positive?

85%

86
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How would one prepare 3 mL of a 5% albumin working solution from stock 30% albumin solution?

0.5 mL stock 30% albumin + 2.5 mL diluent

87
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Semi-automated & automated urine chemical reagent strip readers:

Remove subjectivity allowing for better reproducibility

88
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Which one of the following conditions is associated with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?

Precipitation hemoglobin

89
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Most antibodies present in cord blood are ___ origin.

Maternal

90
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A person with beta thalassemia intermedia might exhibit what clinical symptoms?

Patient's w/ thalassemia intermedia vary in clinical symptoms based on genetic inheritance patterns

91
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In rapid carbohydrate fermentation testing, Neisseria gonorrhoeae ferments the following sugar(s):

Glucose only

92
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Which of the following contributes to specific gravity but does NOT contribute to osmolality

Protein

93
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What is the formula for calculating transferrin saturation (TS)?

(Serum iron/TIBC) x 100

94
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Bone marrow examinations may aid in the diagnosis of:

Leukemia

95
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Blood SERUM contains each of the following substances EXCEPT?

Coagulation proteins

96
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Estriol levels in conjunction with hCG, inhibin A (inhabitants), and alpha fetoprotein (AFP) can be obtained during pregnancy to:

Assess the risk of Down's syndrome

97
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Which of the following statements is true regarding anti-nuclear antibodies?

95% of patients w/ SLE will test positive for ANAs

98
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The infective stage for the majority of all intestinal amebae is the:

Cyst

99
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A ficin (enzyme) treated panel can be a useful tool for determining the identity of antibody. On a ficin-treated panel, reactions with which system would be enhanced?

Rh

100
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In healthy individuals, calcitonin is synthesized by which cells in the body?

Thyroid C cells

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