Formative Competency FINAL questions

How many units do you have to complete for continuing education?

36 units

How many months of supervised fieldwork are required of an OT and OTA?

6 months and 2 months

What organization accredits occupational therapy education programs?

ACOTE

An OT must have onsite, face-to-face meetings with the OTA 1 hr/40 hrs worked. T/F

TRUE

Occupational therapists receive their license from AOTA. T/F

FALSE

Certification grants you the legal privilege to practice OT in the state. T/F

FALSE

What are the types of OT interventions mentioned in this module?

Occupations & Activities,

Occupation supports,

Education & Training,

Advocacy,

Group Interventions,

Virtual Interventions,

Occupations & Activities,

Occupation supports,

Education & Training,

Advocacy,

Group Interventions,

Virtual Interventions

Define Advocacy and the two types?

Efforts directed toward promoting occupational justice and empowering clients to seek and obtain resources to support health, well-being, and occupational participation. Advocacy-efforts undertaken by the practitioner and self-advocacy-efforts undertaken by the client with support from the practitioner.

The supervisor allowed suggestions from her therapists on how the documenting system should be set up for the new year. She considered each opinion and then made her decision. What type of leadership style is the supervisor establishing?

facilitative leadership

Which of the following is not one of Yalom's curative factors of groups?

environmental factors

Outcomes can be set for individuals, groups, and caregivers. T/F

TRUE

Which reasoning uses the client's occupational history?

Narrative

Which substage(s) of sensorimotor development involves using acquired knowledge to reach a goal?

Coordination of reactions

At what age group does the lungs fully mature by?

20-25

Taste buds shrink as you age, but increase in number. T/F

FALSE

At what developmental stage do children begin to imitate behaviors that aid in self care?

2-3 years

What mineral is responsible for bone growth, but also bone deterioration?

Calcium

Which of the following skills are improved through play?

Motor, Social, and Cognitive skills

This FOR views change as a process that occurs with caregiver assistance and environmental adaptations. It also recognizes brain plasticity.

Allen's Cognitive Levels

Explain how you would differentiate between PEO & PEOP.

PEO is internationally based and change occurs by facilitating engagement in occupations and the PEOP begins with the client's view of the problem.

A occupation-based model is used to______(explain)______ and a frame of reference ______(explain)______.

Occupation-based models: These models are a way to organize approaches to thinking about complex problem. They are occupation-based because they attempt to explain the relationship between occupation, person, and environment. Frame of reference (FOR): This is a system of compatible concepts that help to guide OTs in the assessment and intervention process within specific domains, populations, areas of practice, etc.

Which FOR involves selecting tasks that are challenging and meaningful to the client?

Motor Learning & Task Oriented

The Sensory Motor & Processing frame focuses on the interaction between the sensory systems and how they integrate information that contributes to a child's learning and behavior. T/F

FALSE

Which of the following is not an intervention under the Biomechanical & Rehabilitation FOR?

Constraint Induced Movement Therapy

A 7-year-old girl experienced a fracture on her left upper extremity after a fall from the monkey bars on the playground. The x-ray showed that one side of the bone is bent, and the other side of the bone is broken. What type of fracture is this?

greenstick

The palmar interossei function as adductors and the dorsal interossei function as abductors. T/F

TRUE

All the following are benefits of PROM exercises after a tendon repair EXCEPT

Encouraging scar tissue formation

Which of the following is NOT a hip precaution typically prescribed by a physician after hip replacement surgery?

avoid total weight bearing

Which of the following is incorrect?

Answers:

Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis differ in that the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis occur bilaterally.

Osteogenesis imperfecta results in bones that fracture more easily than normal.

Third degree burns only involve the epidermis and dermis.

Low back pain is one of the most common reasons that people miss work and go into a doctor's office

Third degree burns only involve the epidermis and dermis

________ neurons send sensory signals up to the brain while _________ neurons send motor signals from the brain to the muscle.

afferent, efferent

Which of the following is not a progressive/degenerative neuromuscular disease:

Spina Bifida

Parkinson's

Huntington's Chorea

Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

Spina Bifida

Directly following a TBI, _______________________ is used to measure the level of consciousness, while ________________ measures a patient's level of cognitive functioning.

Glasgow coma scale, Ranchos los amigos

The body's immune system attacks nerves, causing pins/needles sensations to extremities, weakness in LE, double vision, and difficulty with facial movements.

Guillain Barre Syndrome

Group of diseases that cause weakness and loss of muscle mass. Lack of dystrophin.

muscular dystrophy

Progressive disease targeting neurons responsible for voluntary muscle movement.

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

NM disorder that causes weakness & fatigue in skeletal muscles, due to a decrease in acetylcholine receptors.

Myasthenia Gravis

Damage to the nerves outside of the brain & spinal cord. Can often affect the ANS.

Peripheral Neuropathy

Compressions of one or more of the network of peripheral spinal nerves in c5, c6, c7, c8, and t1 roots.

Brachial Plexus syndrome

A physician examines a patient via Ice pack test and observes that the eyes droop down. Which of the following conditions could be considered during dx?

Myasthenia Gravis

A child who was labeled as a "good baby" is now socially withdrawn, is slow to complete tasks and is unaware of their surroundings, being touched, or when they need to use the restroom. What sensory processing disorder might he/she have?

Sensory under-responsive

You go to get a patient for therapy, and you see that he has slight facial drooping, and is complaining of vision problems and dizziness. You predict that he has had a stroke. How long do you have after the stroke for the client to get a tPA, with the best chance of recovery?

4 hours

What disorder does not have difficulty swallowing as one of the symptoms?

Bowel Obstruction

Gastroesophageal reflux disease(GERD)

Dysphagia

Odynophagia

Bowel Obstruction

What disorder is typically seen in individuals who are diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis and Spina Bifida?

Neurogenic bowel and bladder

A common symptom of chronic kidney disease is hypertension, but it can be easily controlled. T/F

FALSE

Kidney infection is more common and less severe than a bladder infection. T/F

FALSE

Which of the Following is not a symptom of Tuberculosis?

Answers:

Chest Pain

Fatigue

Unintentional Weight Gain

Long-term cough

unintentional weight gain

MS is a type of neurodegenerative autoimmune disorder that attacks the body's myelin sheath. T/F

TRUE

How many circulation processes are there in the cardiopulmonary system?

2

Hepatitis is a disorder that causes inflammation in what organ?

liver

What type of diabetes is caused by autoimmune reaction?

Type 1

What instrument can be used to check the oxygen saturation and the pulse of a client?

pulse oximeter

Which of the following is a type of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder?

Hyperactive-Impulsive

Inattentive

Combined

Both

ALL of the above

Those diagnosed with Intellectual Disorders

have trouble understanding social rules

With Bipolar Disorder, hypomanic episodes are more severe and can trigger psychosis, requiring hospitalization. T/F

FALSE

About half of individuals who experience Substance Use Disorder will also experience a co-occuring:

mental disorder

Bulimia nervosa is characterized by an immense fear of gaining weight, persistent behavior that interferes with weight gain, and significantly low body weight. T/F

FALSE

A 7 year old child who actively breaks rules, frequently argues with others, often becomes angry, and deliberately annoys others is presenting characteristics of what disorder?

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

What is the MiniMental State exam? What is it not?

An easy and quick way to assess cognitive functioning, not mood or thought process

Which of the following is a current way to diagnose an individual with autism?

Level 1

Which of the following emotions are generally associated with Anxiety Disorder?

fear and anxiety

What is not a symptom of Reactive Attachment Disorder (RAD)?

Answers:

Inability to be comforted

Difficulty with emotional regulation

Episodes of fear, sadness, and irritability

Difficulty managing time

Difficulty managing time

Which of the following is incorrect?

Answers:

Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis differ in that the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis occur bilaterally.

Osteogenesis imperfecta results in bones that fracture more easily than normal.

Third degree burns only involve the epidermis and dermis.

Low back pain is one of the most common reasons that people miss work and go into a doctor's office

Third degree burns only involve the epidermis and dermis

3rd degree burns only involve the epidermis and dermis

What is not under Neurocognitive Disorders according to DSM-5?

Answers:

Dementia

Delirium

Alzheimers

Autism Spectrum Disorder

Autism Spectrum Disorder

Personality disorders are all diagnosed by which of the following symptoms

inflexible patterns of behavior

Schizophrenia is characterized by all the following except?

Answers:

Symptoms may be present for at least a month and some stay at least 6 months

Usually start between 16-30

Diminished volition

Grandiose sense of self

Grandiose sense of self

At what level of dressing performance would you expect a 1 year old?

putting arm in a sleeve held open for them

one year old developmental skills:

removes socks

can put on and take off a loose fitting hat

helps with dressing by pushing arm through sleeves and legs through pant opening

two year old developmental milestones:

can try to remove shoes

removes simple clothing such as pushing down pants or pulling off socks

once a shirt is over the head, they can find and push their arms through the shirt opening

two and a 1/2 year old milestones:

attempts to put on socks

unbutton a large button

can put on easy clothing such as jackets or open front shirts without zipping or buttoning them

three year old milestones:

able to put on a t-shirt with a little help

able to put on shoes, although R or L orientation may be incorrect

able to put on socks with a little help for the correct orientation of the heel

able to pull down simple clothing (elastic waist band pants) independently

able to zip and unzip jacket if already connected

3 and 1/2 year old milestones:

able to unzip a jacket and separate the shank

is able to button three or four buttons

can unbuckle a belt with practice

able to find the front side of clothing and dress themselves independently with supervision

4 year old milestones:

and 5 year old:

able to insert shank together to zip or unzip jacket with practice

lace shoes

able to place socks on appropriate orientation

**able to dress independently

An impatient is diagnosed with Central Cord Syndrome. He wants to be independent with ADLs when discharged to live at home. Which assessment represents the biomechanical approach that is part of the overall eval that will determine progress?

MMT

An elderly lady reported, "I tore 3/4 of my rotator cuff muscles in the past" Which of the following muscles cannot be torn?

Teres Major

(Teres minor, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus make up the rotator cuff muscles)

what is the term that describes the mandate of confidentiality of patient info and holds the practitioner to remain faithful to the patient's best interest?

Fidelity (duty to keep a commitment once it is made)

except in extenuating circumstances the Arkansas ot practice act specifies the appropriate level of supervision of an OTA as "frequent and regular", which means?

1hr/40 hours worked

which lobe of the brain is involved in executive function?

Frontal

Which of the following tests reflect best performance if the client's score is high?

Glascow Coma Scale-8 severe, and 15 is upper limit of mild performance

ACL (5.8 is highest and best)

SOMCT scoring?

(short orientation memory cognitive test) like blessed test.

8 or lower is normal. 28 is highest-most impaired

Head Injury classification based off GCS?

Severe head injury (8 or less)

Moderate head injury (9-12)

Mild head Injury (13 to 15)

ACL levels:

Level 1 (automatic)-external stimuli response. 0.8 is coma.

Level 2 (postural)-controls gross movement may need postural support

Level 3 (manual actions)-hands reach and grasp, do not understand meaning, repetitive movements, and supervision

Level 4 (goal directed)-not problem solvers, visual cues, ADLS done independently.

Level 5 (independent learning)-learn new actions by doing an activity, do not anticipate hazards

Level 6 (planned activities)

GG Scores:

6 /Independent: complete activity with or without device

5 /Setup/clean-up: helper setups up items or cleans up after activity; puts away dirty clothes; picks up towels after shower; puts away sliding board after transfer; disposes of soiled brief after incontinent episode

4 /supervision or touching A: Helper provides cues, steadies pt/CGA, carries O2 tank or pushes IV pole

3 /Moderate A: Patient does MORE but therapist provides some physical assistance.

2 /Max A: Helper does MORE

1 /TotalA: Helper does ALL/patient does less than 25% or 2 or more helpers is required

fractures are most commonly caused by

unintentional falls

occurs when the distal end of the radius is fractured & is the most common fracture among older adults

Colles Fracture

T/F Fractures can also be associated with decreased sensation, strength, & movement depending upon where the fracture is located & its severity

True

results from repeated movements/overuse of tendons

Epicondylitis

tennis and golf elbow are?

Lateral and Medial Epicondylitis

T/F Fractures could cause excessive bone growth (heterotrophic ossification), resulting in stiffness

True

Involves inflammation of joints, resulting in stiffness & pain

Arthritis

breakdown of cartilage between joints & is the most common type of arthritis

osteoarthritis

autoimmune disorder that causes a breakdown of healthy tissue & results in inflammation

Rheumatoid arthritis

build up of uric acid in the body that results in uric acid crystallization in the joints (most commonly in the big toe)

gout

results in pain, stiffness, & fatigue; however, the cause is not known

Fibromyalgia

autoimmune disease resulting in symptoms such as muscle & joint pain, fever, hair loss, and anemia

lupus

Hip Precautions:

● No hip flexion past 90 degrees

● No internal/external rotation of the hip

● No adduction/abduction of hip

● AKA: No crossing legs, no pointing feet out or in towards body, no bending down to touch toes, and never have knees higher than 90 degrees

Weight Bearing Precautions:

● NWB: foot should not even touch floor

● TDWB: only the toe should touch down. Only about 10 lbs of weight

● PWB= 25-50% of body weight

● WBAT= as much weight as pt can tolerate

Specific Personality Disorders

a. Cluster A: Individuals are perceived as odd and eccentric:

i. Paranoid personality disorder

1. Long-standing suspiciousness and mistrust

2. Refuse responsibility for their feelings

3. Appear hostile, irritable and angry

ii. Schizoid personality disorder

1. Lifelong pattern of social withdrawal

2. Bland, constricted affect

3. Identified as isolated or lonely

iii. Schizotypal personality disorder

1. Odd or strange in thinking and behavior

2. Magical thinking, peculiar ideas, ideas of reference, illusions and derealization

Cluster B: Individuals are perceived as dramatic, emotional, and erratic:

i. Antisocial personality disorder

1. Continual antisocial or criminal acts

2. Inability to conform to social norms

3. No regard for the safety or feelings of others

ii. Borderline personality disorder

1. Extraordinarily unstable affect, mood, behavior, relationships, and self-image

2. Fear of abandonment leads to frantic efforts to avoid it

3. Recurrent self-destructive, or self-mutilating behavior

iii. Histrionic personality disorder

1. Colorful, dramatic, extroverted behavior in excitable and emotional people

2. Inability to maintain relationships with flamboyant presentation

iv. Narcissistic personality disorder

1. A heightened sense of self-importance and a grandiose feeling that they are special in some way

Cluster C: Individuals are perceived as anxious or fearful:

i. Avoidant personality disorder

1. Extreme sensitivity to rejection

2. Not asocial, they have a great desire for companionship but consider themselves inept or unworthy

3. Often referred to as having an inferiority complex

ii. Dependent personality disorder

1. Subordinate their own needs to those of others and need others to assume responsibility for major areas in their lives

2. Lack self-confidence

3. May experience discomfort when alone for more than a brief period

iii. Obsessive compulsive personality disorder

1. Emotional constriction, orderliness, perseverance, stubbornness, and indecisiveness

2. Pervasive pattern of perfectionism and inflexibility

iv. Personality disorders not otherwise specified (NOS)

1. Passive-aggressive

2. Depressive

3. Sadomasochistic

4. Sadistic