IFS Review Questions Unit 1-4

What neurotransmitters are released by the parasympathetic nervous system?

a. Epinepherine only

b. Norepinepherine only

c. Both epinepherine and norepinepherine

d. Acetylcholine only

D. Acetylcholine

Reaching across the body with the right hand to grab an object at shoulder height includes:

A) Extension and adduction of the shoulder in the vertical plane

B) Flexion and abduction of the shoulder in the horizontal plane

C) Trunk rotation to contralateral (opposite) side in a vertical axis

D) Trunk rotation to ipsilateral (same) side in a vertical axis

C) Trunk rotation to contralateral (opposite) side in a vertical axis

Which of the following best describes a plane of motion and an axis of movement?

A) shoulder abduction to 90 degrees in the sagittal plane and anterior to posterior axis

B) shoulder abduction to 180 degrees in the coronal plane and anterior to posterior axis

C) shoulder flexion to 90 degrees in the sagittal plane and vertical (longitudinal) axis

D) shoulder flexion to 180 degrees in the sagittal plane and sagittal axis

B) shoulder abduction to 180 degrees in the coronal plane and anterior to posterior axis

What happens to muscle force production when the muscle is at its minimum length?

A) Maximum force production

B) Minimal force production

C) Moderate force production

D) Variable force production

B) Minimal force production

Which of the following describes a synovial (diarthrodial) joint?

1. Joint capsule, sensory nerves, and lack of synovial fluid​

2. Synovial membrane, ligaments, and lack of blood vessels ​

3. Joint capsule, blood vessels, and sensory nerves ​

4. Synovial fluid, articular cartilage, and lack of blood vessels

3. Joint capsule, blood vessels, and sensory nerves ​

Which of the following is an example of anabolism?

a. Formation of glucose from glycogen

b. Formation of glycogen from glucose

c. Formation of pyruvate from glucose

d. Formation of Acetyl CoA from fatty acid

b. Formation of glycogen from glucose

Which type of neuron carries signals from the body to the central nervous system?

A) Afferent neuron

B) Efferent neuron

C) Interneuron

D) Motor neuron

A) Afferent neuron

A physical therapist asks a patient to look up so that their head is facing the ceiling. What motion is being assessed?

A) Thoracic Flexion

B) Cervical Flexion

C) Mandibular Elevation

D) Cervical Extension

D) Cervical Extension

Which of the following is an example of a ligand gated ion channel?

A) A stretch stimulus causes ion channel to alter cell permeability

B) Na+ causes the ion channel to alter cell permeability

C) K+ causes the ion channel to alter cell permeability

D) Neurotransmitters causes the ion channel to alter cell permeability

D) Neurotransmitters causes the ion channel to alter cell permeability

How many membranes protect the Central Nervous System?

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

3

Which of the following statements is true regarding the physiological cross-sectional area (PCSA) of a muscle?

A) It is proportional to the muscle's length.

B) It determines the muscle's potential force output.

C) It is only relevant for pennate muscles.

D) It has no impact on muscle strength.

B) It determines the muscle's potential force output.

All the of the following ligaments limit flexion in the thoracic spine EXCEPT?

1. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

2. Interspinous Ligament

3. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

4. Supraspinous Ligament

1. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

What is the order of ligaments in the lumbar spine from anterior to posterior?

1. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament, Interspinous ligament, Supraspinous Ligament, Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

2. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament, Posterior Longitudinal Ligament, Interspinous ligament, Supraspinous Ligament

3. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament, Supraspinous Ligament, Interspinous ligament, Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

4. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament, Anterior Longitudinal Ligament, Interspinous ligament, Supraspinous Ligament

2. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament, Posterior Longitudinal Ligament, Interspinous ligament, Supraspinous Ligament

All of the following muscles are part of the Erector Spinae group of muscles EXCEPT?

1. Iliocostalis

2. Longissimus

3. Multifidus

4. Spinalis

3. Multifidus

The olfactory nerve passes through whatstructure?

• A: Cribriform plate

• B: Nasal cavity

• C: Superior orbital fissure

• D: Foramen lacerum

• A: Cribriform plate

Which sulcus separates the temporal lobe from the parietal and frontal lobe?

A. Lateral sulcus

B. Dorsal medial sulcus

C. Central sulcus

D. Calcarine sulcus

Option A

Lateral sulcus

Which of the following best describes the 3rd order neuron of the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway?

A. Starts in the dorsal horn and synapses in the contralateral somatosensory cortex

B. Starts in the ventral posterior lateral nucleus of the thalamus and synapses in the somatosensory cortex

C. Starts in the nucleus cuneatus/gracilis and synapses in the somatosensory cortex

D. Starts in the ventral posterior lateral nucleus of the thalamus then crosses the midline and synapse in the somatosensory cortex

Option B

Starts in the ventral posterior lateral nucleus of the thalamus and synapses in the somatosensory cortex

Which of the following cranial nerves carry autonomic fibers?

A. CN III, VI, XI, X

B. CN II, III, IX, X

C. CN V, VII, IX, X

D. CN III, VII, IX, X

Option D

CN III, VII, IX, X

Which of the following is true regarding fast pain?

1. It utilizes c fibers

2. The third order neuron is found in the mediodorsal nuclei

3. It travels up the fasciculus gracilis or cuneatus

4. The third order neuron is found in the ventral posterior lateral nucleus (VPL of thalamus: part of the STT)

2. The third order neuron is found in the mediodorsal nuclei

The sympathetic nervous system is primarily found in which region of the spinal column?

1. Cervical and thoracic

2. Cervical and sacral

3. Thoracic and lumbar

4. Lumbar and sacral

3. Thoracic and lumbar

A patient complains of numbness in the 4th and 5th digits. What dermatome(s) is(are) more likely to be involved?

1. C6 and C7

2. C6 thumb & index

3. C8

4. C7 middle finger

3. C8

A patient with weakness with lateral rotation of the shoulder may demonstrate which of the following:

1. Involvement of the myotome at C5

2. Involvement of the myotome at C6-C8

3. Involvement of the myotome at C7-C8

4. Involvement of the myotome at C4-C5

1. Involvement of the myotome at C5

Which of the following movements are most likely to be performed by the splenius capitis?

1. Extension and lateral flexion

2. Flexion and contralateral flexion*

3. Extension and medial flexion

4. Flexion and ipsilateral extension

1. Extension and lateral flexion

Which of the following ligaments goes by a different name after the transition from Cervical Spine to Thoracic Spine?

1. Supraspinous Ligament​​

2. Ligamentum Flavum​​

3. Nuchal Ligament​​

4. Intertransverse Ligament

3. Nuchal Ligament​​

Kinematics of the lumbar spine during RIGHT side bending

R facet down

L facet up

Kinematics of the thoracic spine during extension

Bilateral down and back

Kinematics of the cervical spine during extension

bilateral down and back

What is the most clinically important descending motor pathway in the nervous system?

Lateral corticospinal tract​

Controls voluntary, fine, skilled movements of extremities ​

Crosses to CL slide after brainstem ​

Contains first (UMN) and second (LMN) order neurons ​

UMN signs: CL muscle weakness, hypotrophy, hyperreflexia

What is the DCML pathway responsible for?

Posterior/dorsal column medial lemniscal ​

Light/fine touch, tactile / two-point discrimination, vibration, conscious proprioception ​

Entire body EXCEPT for the head

What is the antero-lateral spinothalamic tract responsible for?

Pain and temperature (lateral), crude touch (anterior), itch, tickle, some visceral sensations ​​

Anterolateral pathway​​

NO motor function ​​

Transmits fast, localized pain to primary somatosensory cortex

What are the 3 main arteries that make up the Circle of Willis?

1. Anterior cerebral, Basilar, and Vertebral​

2. Middle cerebral, posterior cerebral, and vertebral ​

3. Anterior cerebral, middle cerebral, and posterior cerebral​

4. Posterior cerebral, middle cerebral, superior cerebral

3. Anterior cerebral, middle cerebral, and posterior cerebral​

The foramen ovale contains a nerve that does which of the following functions?

A: sensation to the anterior 2/3 of tongue

B: sensation to the posterior 1/3 of tongue

C: taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue

D: taste to posterior 1/3 of tongue

A: sensation to the anterior 2/3 of tongue

Which of the following is true regarding tendon reflexes?

• A: It stimulates the alpha motor neuron

• B: It stimulates the dorsal root ganglion

• C: It stimulates the upper motor neurons

• D: It stimulates the neuromuscular junction

• A: It stimulates the alpha motor neuron

T/F: The lumbar spine is designed for rotation.

False - flex/ext.

What are the arthrokinematics of C0/C1 with subcranial extension?

a. Bilateral downglide

b. Anterior roll, posterior glide

c. Posterior roll, anterior glide

d. Bilateral upglide

c. Posterior roll, anterior glide

The primary function of the cerebellum is to...

coordinate voluntary movements and balance

Forward head posture is associated with...

increased strain on the posterior cervical muscles

What artery supplies the tract that controls voluntary motor control ipsilaterally?

anterior spinal artery

What is an example of a synovial diarthrosis that allow motion in only two planes?

Ellipsoid joint

What do fluid-filled cavities within the neural tube develop into?

a. Spinal Cord

b. Mesencephalon

c. Rhombencephalon

d. Brain ventricles

D. Brain Ventricles

What is the correct location of the somatosensory association cortex in the human brain?

a. Frontal lobe

b. Temporal lobe

c. Parietal lobe

d. Occipital lobe

C. Parietal Lobe

What is the location of the primary visual cortex?

a. Precentral gyrus

b. Postcentral gyrus

c. Sylvian fissure

d. Calcarine fissure

d. Calcarine fissure

Which of the following best describes neuroplasticity?

a. A neuron's ability to adapt their function and chemical profile

b. A neuron's ability to become a different type of neuron

c. A neuron's ability to become a neural precursor cell when needed

d. A neuron's ability to undergo mitosis to replace damaged neurons

a. A neuron's ability to adapt their function and chemical profile

Which of the following statements regarding epithelial tissues is correct?

A. Regulate material exchange between internal and external environments

B. Carries information in the form of chemical or electrical signals

C. Provides the body with the ability to produce force and movement

D. Provides not only a physical barrier but also as a structural support

A. Regulate material exchange between internal and external environments

Which of the following BEST defines the inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)?

A. Causes a hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

B. Summation of IPSP can generate an action potential

C. Causes depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

D. The transport of cellular material from the axon back to the soma

A. Causes a hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

A therapist wants to assess a patient's joint mobility in an open-packed position because it has:

A. Maximum accessory movement available

B. Maximum joint congruency available

C. Maximum joint stability available

D. Maximum ligamentous tightness

A. Maximum accessory movement available

A patient lying supine was asked to turn their head to the left. What plane of motion did the rotation occur in?

A. Transverse Plane

B. Frontal Plane

C. Sagittal Plane

D. Vertical Plane

A. Transverse Plane

The speed of an action potential is influenced by which two parameters?

A) Diameter of the axon and refractory period

B) Diameter of the axon and resistance to ion leakage

C) Excitatory influence and chemical speed

D) Resistance to ion leakage and diffusion rate

B) Diameter of the axon and resistance to ion leakage

Which layer(s) do all organ systems derive from during in utero development?

A) Dermatomes and Myotomes

B) Endoderm, Mesoderm, and Ectoderm

C) Neural crest

D) Ventricles

B) Endoderm, Mesoderm, and Ectoderm

What is the torque (τ) produced by the biceps brachii when the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees, given that the force of the muscle is 25N and a weight of 20 lbs. is placed on the hand 25 cm. away from the elbow joint?

A) τ= 25 x 20 = 500 Ncm

B) τ= 25 x 25 = 625 Ncm

C) τ= 0.25 x 20 = 5 Ncm

D) τ= 25 x 0.25 = 6.25 Ncm

B) τ= 25 x 25 = 625 Ncm

Which of the following arthrokinematics movements is true?

A) roll and glide of a concave surface on a convex surface happens in opposite directions

B) roll and glide of a convex surface on a convex surface happens in opposite directions

C) roll and glide of a convex surface on a concave surface happens in opposite directions

D) roll and glide of concave surface on a concave surface happens in opposite directions

C) roll and glide of a convex surface on a concave surface happens in opposite directions

The CMC of the thumb is an example of which of the following:

A) a ball and socket joint

B) a condylar joint

C) a condyloid joint

D) a saddle joint

D) a saddle joint

What is considered the "buffer zone" between cells and the outside environment?

A) Blood plasma

B) Cytoplasm

C) Extracellular fluid (ECF)

D) Intracellular fluid (ICF)

C) Extracellular fluid (ECF)

What is the difference between catabolism and anabolism in metabolism?

A) Catabolism breaks down biomolecules; anabolism synthesizes them.

B) Catabolism builds biomolecules; anabolism breaks them down.

C) Catabolism occurs only in mitochondria; anabolism occurs only in the cytoplasm.

D) Catabolism requires oxygen; anabolism does not.

A) Catabolism breaks down biomolecules; anabolism synthesizes them.

An action potential can occur when:

A) Hyperpolarization meets the threshold due to an influx of Na+

B) Depolarization meets the threshold due to an influx of Na+

C) Repolarization meets the threshold due to an efflux of Na+

D) Depolarization meets the threshold due to an efflux of Na+

B) Depolarization meets the threshold due to an influx of Na+

Which of the following is not part of the embryological stages of development?

A) Gestational Stage

B) Fetal Stage

C) Pre-embryonic Stage

D) Embryonic Stage

A) Gestational Stage

Which of the following best defines the inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)?

A) Summation of IPSP can generate an action potential

B) Causes a hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

C) Causes depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

D) The transport of cellular material from the axon back to the soma

B) Causes a hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

Which of the following structures are always found in synovial joints?

A) Fibrocartilage, synovial fluid, sensory nerves, synovial membrane

B) Ligaments, blood vessels, intra-articular disc, articular cartilage

C) Synovial fluid, articular cartilage, joint capsule, sensory nerves

D) Joint capsule, synovial membrane, synovial plicae, synovial fluid

C) Synovial fluid, articular cartilage, joint capsule, sensory nerves

Which of the following is part of the peripheral nervous system?

A) Autonomic nervous system and brain stem

B) Dorsal and ventral horns

C) Cauda Equina and spinal cord

D) Sympathetic and enteric nervous system

D) Sympathetic and enteric nervous system

Which of the following is correct regarding internal torque?

A) The product of the muscle force and the external moment arm

B) The force generated by muscles or tendon relative to an axis of rotation

C) The force generated by gravity relative to an axis of rotation

D) The product of the muscle force and the internal moment arm

D) The product of the muscle force and the internal moment arm

Which of the following is part of the immune system?

A) Skin

B) Thymus

C) Blood vessels

D) Kidney

B) Thymus

Which of the following arises from the ectoderm?

A) Blood vessels

B) Brain

C) Lungs

D) Dermis

B) Brain

Which of the following best describes the position of the nose to the ears?

A) The nose is palmar to the ears

B) The nose is dorsal to the ears

C) The ears are lateral and posterior to the nose

D) The ears are medial and anterior to the nose

C) The ears are lateral and posterior to the nose

The fulcrum that is between the effort and load is an example of what type of lever?

A) A first or second class lever

B) First class lever

C) Second class lever

D) Third class lever

B) First class lever

Reaching anteriorly and superior to change a lightbulb requires:

A) Shoulder Abduction in the frontal plane

B) Shoulder Flexion in the sagittal plane

C) Shoulder Extension in the sagittal plane

D) Shoulder External rotation in the frontal plane

B) Shoulder Flexion in the sagittal plane

Which of the following statements is true regarding graded potentials?

A) Does not vary in amplitude and duration

B) Does not require a threshold to trigger

C) A fast way to communicate information

D) Must meet a threshold to be triggered

B) Does not require a threshold to trigger

Which of the following best describes dense regular connective tissues?

A) Formed by fibroblasts and found in tendons

B) Formed by chondroblasts and found in nerve sheaths

C) Formed by chondroblasts and found in ligaments

D) Formed by fibroblasts and found in skin

A) Formed by fibroblasts and found in tendons

What is the fibrous joint that is unique to the skull called?

1. Axial skeleton

2. Cranium joints

3. Facial joints

4. Sutures

4. Sutures

Which suture of the skill connects the frontal bone with the two parietal bones?

1. Coronal suture

2. Lambdoid suture

3. Sagittal suture

4. Squamous suture

1. Coronal suture

Where is the Cerebral Spinal Fluid Formed?

1. Arachnoid mater

2. Spinal cord

3. Ventricles

3. Ventricles

How many ventricles are in the brain?

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

3. 4

What structures make up the brainstem?

1. Medulla, pons, and cerebellum

2. Midbrain, pons, and medulla

3. Pons, cerebellum, and spinal cord

2. Midbrain, pons, and medulla

The basal ganglia is a collection of gray matter in the cerebellum and includes which of the following structures:

1. Thalamus, amygdala, red nucleus

2. Thalamus, subthalamic nuclei, and red nucleus

3. Striatum, amygdala, claustrum

4. Substantia nigra, striatum, amygdala

3. Striatum, amygdala, claustrum

This classification of neurohormone acts both as neurotransmitters and hormones and maintains homeostasis through the autonomic nervous system.

1. Catecholamines

2. Hypothalamic neurohormones

3. Neurotransmitters

4. Pituitary hormones

1. Catecholamines

Which hormone is not produced by the anterior pituitary?

1. Acetylcholine (ACH)

2. Growth hormone (GH)

3. Prolactin (PRL)

4. Thyrotropin (TSH)

1. Acetylcholine (ACH)

Which motor neurons are responsible for innervating extrafusal muscle fibers, enabling skeletal muscle contraction?

1. Alpha motor neurons

2. Beta motor neurons

3. Gamma motor neurons

4. Sensory neurons

1. Alpha motor neurons

Which of the following BEST describes the active components of muscle?

A) Connective tissues

B) Sarcomeres, actin, and myosin

C) Tendon fibers

D) Muscle belly

B) Sarcomeres, actin, and myosin

What is the primary function of passive components in muscle?

A) Generate force

B) Store energy

C) Provide structural support

D) Facilitate movement

B) Store energy

Which of the following is NOT a component of the muscle tendon unit?

A) Epimysium

B) Perimysium

C) Endomysium

D) Ligamentum

D) Ligamentum

What is the role of epimysium in muscle structure?

A) Surround individual fibers

B) Enclose the muscle belly

C) Connect muscle to bone

D) Provide blood supply to muscle

B) Enclose the muscle belly

What type of muscle morphology is characterized by long and thin fibers?

A) Multipennate

B) Fusiform

C) Circular

D) Unipennate

B) Fusiform

In pennate muscles, what is the relationship between force and angle of pennation?

A) Force increases with higher angles

B) Force is independent of angle

C) Force decreases with higher angles

D) Force is maximized at 90 degrees

C) Force decreases with higher angles

What does the term "physiological cross-sectional area" (PCSA) refer to?

A) The total length of the muscle

B) The area perpendicular to muscle fibers

C) The area of muscle at rest

D) The area of the tendon

B) The area perpendicular to muscle fibers

What is "active insufficiency" in muscle physiology?

A) Muscle unable to generate force due to excessive length

B) Muscle unable to contract fully due to short length

C) Muscle unable to generate force due to fatigue

D) Muscle unable to relax properly

B) Muscle unable to contract fully due to short length

Considering muscle function, what is the significance of the optimal length for muscle contraction?

A) It allows for maximum force production.

B) It minimizes energy expenditure.

C) It restricts muscle movement.

D) It leads to muscle fatigue.

A) It allows for maximum force production.

What characterizes small motor units in terms of muscle control?

A) Lower coordination and control

B) Higher coordination and control

C) Less force production

D) Greater muscle mass

B) Higher coordination and control

Which of the following best describes the relationship between muscle morphology and force generation?

A) All muscle types generate force equally.

B) Muscle morphology influences the efficiency of force production.

C) Morphology has no impact on force output.

D) Only length affects force generation.

B) Muscle morphology influences the efficiency of force production.

If a muscle is at its resting length, what can be said about its force generation potential?

A) It is maximally efficient.

B) It is at its lowest potential.

C) It is variable and unpredictable.

D) It is unable to generate force.

A) It is maximally efficient.

Which of the following best describes the performance characteristics of fusiform and multipennate muscles?

A) Fusiform muscles generate greater force but operate at lower angular velocities.

B) Multipennate muscles facilitate greater shortening excursion and higher angular velocity.

C) Fusiform muscles support higher angular velocities and greater shortening excursion

D) Both muscle types exhibit equal effectiveness in producing force and speed during movement.

C) Fusiform muscles support higher angular velocities and greater shortening excursion

What is the outer layer of the bone called?

1. Compact bone

2. Epiphyseal plate

3. Periosteum

4. Trabecular bone

3. Periosteum

Which type of muscle architecture is associated with greater force production?

1. Circular

2. Fusiform

3. Multipennate

4. Parallel

3. Multipennate

Which structure is known for its cartilaginous "c shaped" rings?

1. Larynx

2. Pharynx

3. Trachea

4. Voice box

3. Trachea

In a typical spine, the number of vertebral bodies located in the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar regions is?

1. Cervical 7, Thoracic 12, Lumbar 5

2. Cervical 5, Thoracic 12, Lumbar 5

3. Cervical 7, Thoracic 10, Lumbar 6

4. Cervical 5, Thoracic 10, Lumbar 6

1. Cervical 7, Thoracic 12, Lumbar 5

What are the characteristics of typical cervical vertebrae (C3-C7)?

1. Large vertebral bodies, small vertebral foramina, no foramina in the transverse process, and single spinous process

2. Large vertebral bodies, large vertebral foramina, foramina in the transverse processes, and bifid spinous processes

3. Small vertebral bodies, small vertebral foramina, no foramina in the transverse process, and single spinous process

4. Small vertebral bodies, large vertebral foramina, foramina in the transverse processes, and bifid spinous processes

4. Small vertebral bodies, large vertebral foramina, foramina in the transverse processes, and bifid spinous processes

Which of the following cranial nerves carry autonomic fibers?

A: CN III, VII, IX, X

B: CN II, III, IX, X

C: CN V, VII, IX, X

D: CN III, VI, X, XI

A: CN III, VII, IX, X

Which of the following is a function of the tegmentum?

A: Motor control

B: Process visual information

C: Cerebrospinal flow

D: Process auditory information

A: Motor control

Which of the following is an afferent pathway?

• A: Spinothalamic tract

• B: Vestibulospinal tract

• C: Corticospinal tract

• D: Reticulospinal tract

• A: Spinothalamic tract

The basal ganglia contains:

• A: striatum, lenticular nucleus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra

• B: striatum, geniculate nucleus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra

• C: striatum, geniculate nucleus, red nucleus, substantia nigra

• D: striatum, lenticular nucleus, red nucleus, substantia nigra

• A: striatum, lenticular nucleus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra

Which of the following accurately describes the function of an endocrine gland?

• A: Posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin

• B: Anterior pituitary secretes thyroid releasing hormone

• C: Adrenal cortex secretes NE

• D: Parathyroid secretes calcitonin

• A: Posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin

Which of the following pathways BEST describes the 3rd order neuron of the DCML?

• A: Starts in the VPL nucleus of the thalamus and synapses in the somatosensory cortex

• B: Starts in the VPL nucleus of the thalamus then crosses the midline and synapses in the somatosensory cortex

• C: Starts in the nucleus cuneatus/gracilis and synapses in the somatosensory cortex

• D: Starts in the dorsal horn and synapses in the contralateral somatosensory cortex

• A: Starts in the VPL nucleus of the thalamus and synapses in the somatosensory cortex