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449 Terms

1
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What does Landsteiner's Law state?

If an ABO antigen is present on RBCs, the corresponding antibody is absent from the serum, and vice versa.

2
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On which chromosome is the gene for the ABO blood group system located?

Chromosome 9.

3
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The A and B alleles are inherited in what manner?

Codominant.

4
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The O allele is considered what type of gene?

Recessive and amorphic.

5
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What is the most frequent ABO blood type in Caucasians?

Group O (45%).

6
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What is the second most frequent ABO blood type in Caucasians?

Group A (40%).

7
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What is the most frequent ABO blood type in African Americans?

Group O (49%).

8
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What is the second most frequent ABO blood type in African Americans?

Group A (27%).

9
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What is the phenotype of an individual with genotype AA or AO?

Type A.

10
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What is the phenotype of an individual with genotype BB or BO?

Type B.

11
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What is the phenotype of an individual with genotype AB?

Type AB.

12
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What is the phenotype of an individual with genotype OO?

Type O.

13
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What precursor substance must be formed before A or B antigens can be expressed on the red cell?

H substance.

14
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The H gene (FUT1) codes for which enzyme?

α-2-L-fucosyltransferase.

15
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What immunodominant sugar defines H specificity?

L-fucose.

16
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The A allele codes for an enzyme that adds which sugar to the H substance?

N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc).

17
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The B allele codes for an enzyme that adds which sugar to the H substance?

D-galactose.

18
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Which ABO group has the highest concentration of H antigen on their red cells?

Group O.

19
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Which ABO group has the lowest concentration of H antigen on their red cells?

Group A₁B.

20
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What is the rare phenotype that results from the inheritance of two nonfunctional H genes (hh)?

Bombay phenotype (Oh).

21
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Why do Bombay (Oh) individuals type as Group O in forward typing?

They lack H antigen, which is the necessary precursor for A and B antigens.

22
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What potent antibody is found in the serum of individuals with the Bombay phenotype?

Anti-H.

23
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Why must Bombay (Oh) individuals be transfused only with other Bombay blood?

Their anti-H is clinically significant and will react with H antigen on all other red cells.

24
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What is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 precursor chains?

The linkage of the terminal galactose to N-acetylglucosamine (Type 1 is β1→3; Type 2 is β1→4).

25
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Which precursor chain type is found on red blood cells?

Type 2.

26
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Which gene governs the secretion of soluble ABH substances into body fluids?

The Secretor (Se) gene.

27
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An individual with genotype SeSe or Sese is known as a(n) what?

Secretor.

28
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An individual with genotype sese is known as a(n) what?

Non-secretor.

29
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How are A₁ and A₂ subgroups serologically distinguished?

Using anti-A₁ lectin (Dolichos biflorus).

30
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Which subgroup of A reacts with anti-A₁ lectin?

A₁ cells.

31
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Which subgroup of A does NOT react with anti-A₁ lectin?

A₂ cells.

32
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What percentage of Group A individuals are A₁?

~80%.

33
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What percentage of Group A individuals are A₂?

~20%.

34
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Which weaker subgroup of A is known for causing mixed-field agglutination with anti-A?

A₃.

35
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What is the Acquired B phenomenon?

A Group A individual's A antigen is modified by bacterial enzymes to resemble the B antigen.

36
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Acquired B antigen is often associated with diseases of what organ?

The colon or rectum.

37
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What is the typical immunoglobulin class of anti-A and anti-B in Group A and B individuals?

Predominantly IgM.

38
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What is the typical immunoglobulin class of anti-A,B in Group O individuals?

Predominantly IgG.

39
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Are ABO antibodies clinically significant?

Yes, they are the most significant for transfusion practice.

40
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ABO antibodies are efficient binders of what, leading to intravascular hemolysis?

Complement.

41
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What is an ABO discrepancy?

When forward grouping and reverse grouping results do not agree.

42
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What is the most common cause of ABO discrepancies?

Technical errors.

43
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What phenomenon is characterized by a "stack of coins" appearance of RBCs and can cause false-positive agglutination?

Rouleaux.

44
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How is rouleaux resolved in serologic testing?

Saline replacement technique.

45
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What is the blood product of choice for a patient with an unknown blood type requiring red cells?

Group O Rh-negative packed cells.

46
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What is the blood product of choice for a patient with an unknown blood type requiring plasma?

Group AB plasma.

47
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What is unique about Lewis system antigens compared to other blood group antigens?

They are not manufactured on RBCs but are adsorbed from the plasma.

48
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The ability to secrete soluble ABH substances is governed by which gene?

Secretor (Se) gene (FUT2).

49
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Which Lewis phenotype is found in ABH nonsecretors who have at least one Le gene?

Le(a+b-).

50
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Which Lewis phenotype is found in ABH secretors who have at least one Le gene?

Le(a-b+).

51
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What is the most common Lewis phenotype in Caucasians (72%)?

Le(a-b+).

52
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What is the most common Lewis phenotype in African Americans (55%)?

Le(a-b+).

53
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Which Lewis phenotype is more common in African Americans (22%) than in Caucasians (6%)?

Le(a-b-).

54
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Which antibodies are typically IgM, naturally occurring, and generally not clinically significant?

Lewis antibodies (anti-Leᵃ, anti-Leᵇ).

55
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Lewis antibodies are most commonly produced by individuals with which phenotype?

Le(a-b-).

56
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Why don't Lewis antibodies typically cause Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN)?

They are usually IgM and cannot cross the placenta, and Lewis antigens are not well-developed at birth.

57
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What often happens to the expression of Lewis antigens on a woman's RBCs during pregnancy?

They are decreased or disappear, resulting in a temporary Le(a-b-) phenotype.

58
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The Leᵇ antigen acts as a receptor for which bacterium, associated with peptic ulcers?

Helicobacter pylori.

59
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Who discovered the antibody that led to the naming of the Rh system?

Karl Landsteiner and Alexander Wiener.

60
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The term "Rh positive" refers to the presence of which antigen?

D antigen.

61
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Which Rh antigen is the most immunogenic?

D antigen.

62
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What are the five major antigens of the Rh system in Fisher-Race terminology?

D, C, E, c, e.

63
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What is the purpose of the Rh control in D typing?

To detect false-positive reactions due to spontaneous agglutination.

64
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What test is performed to detect weakened expression of the D antigen?

Weak D (Du) test.

65
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A weak D phenotype due to the C antigen being in the trans position to the D antigen is known as what effect?

Position effect or Ceppellini effect.

66
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A weak D phenotype where an individual is missing one or more epitopes of the D antigen is called what?

Partial D (D mosaic).

67
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According to the Fisher-Race theory, how many closely linked gene loci control the Rh antigens?

Three (D/d, C/c, E/e).

68
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According to the Wiener theory, a single gene at one locus produces what complex product?

An agglutinogen.

69
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Which two genes on chromosome 1 are now known to control the Rh system?

RHD and RHCE.

70
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What is the most common Rh-positive genotype in Caucasians?

R¹r (DCe/dce).

71
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What is the most common Rh-positive genotype in African Americans?

R⁰r (Dce/dce).

72
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What is the most common Rh-negative genotype in both Caucasians and African Americans?

rr (dce/dce).

73
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What is the frequency of the D antigen in the general population?

~85%.

74
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What is the frequency of the c antigen in the general population?

~80%.

75
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What is the frequency of the e antigen in the general population?

~98%.

76
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How do you calculate the number of units to screen to find antigen-negative blood?

(Number of units needed) / (% of population negative for the antigen).

77
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What immunoglobulin class are most Rh antibodies?

IgG.

78
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What is the rare phenotype where individuals lack all Rh antigens on their RBCs?

Rhₙᵤₗₗ.

79
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What is the name of the antibody produced by Rhₙᵤₗₗ individuals that reacts with all cells except other Rhₙᵤₗₗ cells?

Anti-Rh29 (anti-total Rh).

80
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What compound antigen is expressed when c and e are on the same haplotype (cis position)?

f (ce) antigen.

81
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When was the Kell system discovered?

In 1946, after the development of the Coombs test.

82
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What are the three nomenclatures for the Kell system?

Kell (alphanumeric), ISBT (numeric), andpara-Kell (phenotypic).

83
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What is the frequency of the K (K1) antigen in Caucasians?

9%.

84
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What is the frequency of the K (K1) antigen in African Americans?

2%.

85
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What is the frequency of the k (K2) antigen?

99.8%.

86
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What is the frequency of the Jsᵃ (K6) antigen in African Americans?

20%.

87
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What is the frequency of the Jsᵃ (K6) antigen in Caucasians?

88
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What is the frequency of the Jsᵇ (K7) antigen?

99.9% in Whites, 99% in Blacks.

89
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The main Kell antigens are encoded by a gene on which chromosome?

Chromosome 7.

90
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The Kx antigen is encoded by a gene on which chromosome?

X chromosome.

91
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What must be used as a positive control when phenotyping for Kell antigens?

A cell that is heterozygous for the antigen.

92
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Why do K₀ (Kell null) individuals lack all Kell system antigens?

They inherit two rare silent K⁰ genes.

93
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What antibody can K₀ (Kell null) individuals produce?

Anti-Ku (anti-K5).

94
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What rare, X-linked phenotype is characterized by weakened Kell antigens, acanthocytosis, and chronic hemolytic anemia?

McLeod phenotype.

95
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McLeod phenotype results from the absence of which antigen?

Kx antigen.

96
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The McLeod phenotype is associated with which X-linked recessive disorder?

Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD).

97
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Outside of ABO and Rh, what is the most common clinically significant antibody seen in the blood bank?

Anti-K (Kell).

98
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What is the immunoglobulin class of most Kell antibodies?

IgG.

99
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Are Kell antibodies clinically significant?

Yes, they cause severe HDFN and transfusion reactions.

100
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How do enzymes like ficin and papain affect Kell antigens?

They do not destroy them.