Exam 3 Human A&PII

What region is part of both the respiratory and digestive tracts?

The pharynx (throat) — common pathway for air, food, and liquid.

What is the function of the epiglottis?

Flap that covers the trachea during swallowing.

What is the larynx?

Voice box; contains the vocal cords.

What is the oral palate?

Roof of the mouth.

What is the uvula?

Dangling mass at the back of the soft palate.

What is the hyoid bone?

U-shaped bone in the neck anchoring the tongue and larynx; doesn’t articulate with other bones.

What is the conducting zone of the respiratory system?

Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and most bronchioles — filter, warm, and humidify incoming air.

What tissue lines the trachea and primary bronchi?

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells that secrete mucus.

How many C-shaped cartilage rings does the trachea have and why?

16–20 rings of hyaline cartilage; keep airway open and allow the esophagus to expand during swallowing.

What does pulmonary ventilation mean?

Breathing—movement of air into and out of lungs involving diaphragm and intercostals.

What is the function of smooth muscle around bronchioles?

Regulates airway diameter, controlling airflow and resistance.

What forms the respiratory membrane?

Alveolar wall (simple squamous), fused basement membranes, and capillary wall (simple squamous endothelium).

Match epithelium types to respiratory areas:

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar: Nasal cavity/trachea/bronchi; Stratified squamous: Pharynx; Simple cuboidal: Bronchioles; Simple squamous: Alveoli.

What are vibrissae and their function?

Nose hairs that filter coarse particles from inhaled air.

Why does the right lung have 3 lobes and the left have 2?

The left has the cardiac notch to accommodate the heart.

What are the main alveolar cell types and their functions?

Type I (gas exchange), Type II (produce surfactant), and macrophages (remove debris).

What law explains the relationship between pressure and volume during breathing?

Boyle’s Law — pressure inversely related to volume.

What is a pneumothorax?

Air in the pleural cavity causing lung collapse; treated with a chest tube to restore negative pressure.

How does the diaphragm move during breathing?

Contracts (moves down) during inhalation; relaxes (moves up) during exhalation.

How do gases diffuse between alveoli and capillaries?

O₂ diffuses into blood, CO₂ diffuses into alveoli, driven by partial pressure gradients.

What does Ohm’s Law for airflow describe?

F ∝ ΔP / R; decreased pressure = lower airflow; decreased resistance = higher airflow.

What are nasal conchae and their function?

Curved bony shelves that create turbulence to warm, humidify, and filter air.

What cartilage forms the anterior part of the nose?

Alar and septal cartilage (hyaline).

Which pharynx region handles only air?

Nasopharynx (air only); oropharynx and laryngopharynx handle air, food, and drink.

What is asthma and what triggers it?

Chronic airway inflammation triggered by allergens, cold air, or exercise; treated with bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory drugs.

Main muscles for inspiration and expiration?

Inspiration: diaphragm and external intercostals; Expiration: internal intercostals and abdominal muscles.

What are the 5 steps of quiet inspiration?

1) Muscles contract → 2) Thoracic volume ↑ → 3) Lung volume ↑ → 4) Pressure ↓ → 5) Air flows in.

What is pulmonary surfactant and its source?

Lipoprotein reducing alveolar surface tension; made by Type II alveolar cells.

Order of respiratory structures (top to bottom)?

Nose → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Primary → Secondary → Tertiary bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli.

What is the respiratory hilum (hilus)?

Medial lung depression where bronchi, vessels, nerves, and lymphatics enter/exit.

What are innate defenses?

Non-specific defenses like skin, mucosa, phagocytes, fever, inflammation, complement, NK cells.

What do dendritic cells do with CD8 cells?

Present antigens (cross-priming) to activate CD8 T cells into cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

What are memory cells and what immunity do they provide?

Long-lived B/T cells from adaptive response; provide active immunity and faster secondary response.

Which WBCs arrive first and second at an infection?

Neutrophils arrive first; monocytes arrive second and become macrophages.

What are plasma cells and how are they formed?

Antibody-secreting B cell derivatives formed after B cell activation.

What are the three lines of defense?

1st – surface barriers; 2nd – innate defenses; 3rd – adaptive defenses.

Which types of immunity develop memory cells?

Naturally and artificially acquired active immunity.

What cell presents an invader to activate a T helper cell?

Antigen-presenting cell (APC) like dendritic cell or macrophage.

What are MHC proteins and their function?

Cell surface glycoproteins presenting antigens to T cells; MHC I → CD8; MHC II → CD4.

What is immunocompetence?

A lymphocyte’s ability to recognize one specific antigen.

List the 6 steps of clonal selection of B cells.

Antigen binds → Activation → Selection → Expansion → Differentiation → Antibody secretion.

Match: chemotaxis, diapedesis, exudate, local hyperemia, margination.

Chemotaxis: phagocyte attraction; Diapedesis: cell exits vessel; Exudate: leaked fluid causing swelling; Local hyperemia: increased blood flow; Margination: neutrophils cling to capillary walls.

What immunity do you get when you recover from an illness?

Naturally acquired active immunity.

What cells are targeted and destroyed by HIV?

CD4 T helper cells.

What are perforin and granzyme used for?

Perforin forms pores; granzymes trigger apoptosis in target cells.

List the main steps of inflammation.

Injury → Mediator release → Vasodilation → Capillary permeability → Swelling/pain → Healing.

What is a vaccination and how does it protect?

Exposure to a dead/weakened pathogen to stimulate active immunity via memory cell formation.

When do lymphocytes become immunocompetent?

T cells in thymus; B cells in bone marrow during maturation.

Compare primary vs. secondary humoral response.

Both specific; secondary is faster, stronger, longer, with higher-affinity antibodies.

What do MHC proteins display for T cells to recognize?

Peptide antigen fragments on the cell surface.