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Normal adult blood pressure range
100-139/>100
Normal SPO2 range for a healthy adult
94-100%
EMT-B medication for allergic reactions
Epinephrine
Device for 2-6 LPM O2 delivery
Nasal cannula
Airway method for trauma patients
Jaw-thrust
Percentage of oxygen in ambient air
21%
Capillary refill time indicating poor perfusion
2 seconds
Cardiac Output formula
CO = SV x HR
BVM is indicated for respiratory rates below
<12
Contraindicated airway device for basilar skull fracture
Nasal airway
Max suction time for an adult
15 seconds
Paradoxical chest motion indicates
Flail chest
Cherry red skin suggests
CO poisoning
Seal-like cough in children
Croup
Bacterial infection causing drooling/tripoding
Epiglottitis
Deep, rapid respirations in DKA
Kussmaul
Blood flow path: RT atrium → → Pulmonary artery
Tricuspid valve
First action if patient arrests during transport
Start CPR
EMT-B meds for chest pain (no allergies)
Aspirin, Nitro, O2
Left-sided heart failure causes
Pulmonary edema
Opioid overdose reversal drug
Naloxone
CPR compression depth for adults
2-3 inches
AED pad placement near pacemaker
1 inch away
Post-ROSC next step
Transport
Stroke type with high BP
Hemorrhagic
Cincinnati Stroke Scale checks
Face, Arm, Speech
EMT-B action for active seizure
Protect airway
Hypoglycemia treatment if A&Ox4
Oral glucose
RLQ pain suggests
Appendicitis
Tearing abdominal pain radiating to back
AAA
Stiff neck + fever + headache
Meningitis
Excited delirium management
Restrain safely
Heat stroke vs. exhaustion key difference
No sweating
Snake bite DON’T
Use ice/tourniquet
Gravida = # of ; Para = # of
Pregnancies, Births
Painless bright red vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks
Placenta previa
APGAR timing
1, 5 minutes
Trauma priority before ABCs
Exsanguination
Greenstick fracture definition
Partial bone break
Femur fracture stabilization device
Traction splint
First action for spurting bright red blood
Direct pressure
Burn with white/leathery skin
3rd degree
NFPA blue diamond indicates
Health hazard
LZ minimum size
100x100ft
Legal term for verbal threats
Assault
Hazmat zone for EMS
Cold zone
START triage color for walking wounded
Green
GCS motor response "obeys commands"
6
Rule of Nines: Each leg = % in adults
18%
SLUDGEM "M" stands for
Miosis
What are common symptoms of shock in patients?
Common symptoms include confusion, rapid heartbeat, pale skin, weakness, and shallow breathing.
What abdominal quadrant is the liver located in?
The liver is located in the right upper quadrant.
What is the adult dose for Epinephrine in anaphylaxis?
0.3 to 0.5
What does 'ABCs' stand for in EMT terminology?
Airway Breathing Circulation
What are the triage categories used in EMT?
red yellow green black
What is the adult dose for Nitroglycerin for chest pain?
The usual adult dose of Nitroglycerin is 0.4 mg sublingually every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
What abbreviation is used for Vital Signs in EMT?
The abbreviation used for Vital Signs is 'VS'.
What is the purpose of the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) exam?
The NREMT exam tests the knowledge and skills of EMTs to ensure they meet national standards for emergency medical care.
The main function of the ___ is to conduct air to the lungs and facilitate gas exchange.
airway
Common airway devices used by EMTs include ___ and bag-valve-mask systems.
oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways
Signs of severe trauma include ___, altered mental status, and multiple fractures.
severe bleeding
A common injury associated with a fall is a ___ fracture.
wrist
The skeletal system provides ___ and protects vital organs.
structure
Types of car crashes include head-on, rear-end, and ___ collisions.
side-impact (T-bone)
The airway filters and ___ air before it reaches the lungs.
humidifies
During trauma, effective airway management prevents ___ and brain injury.
hypoxia
In cardiology, the electrical activity of the heart is measured using a ___.
ECG (electrocardiogram)
A common symptom of a myocardial infarction is ___.
chest pain
The primary goal of resuscitation is to restore ___ and circulation.
breathing
During CPR, chest compressions should be at a rate of ___ per minute.
100 to 120
Common medical conditions affecting the airway include ___ and bronchospasm.
asthma
When treating an asthma attack, EMTs often administer ___.
albuterol
For chest pain, EMTs may administer ___ to reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
Nitroglycerin
A key treatment for anaphylaxis is immediate administration of ___.
epinephrine
The mechanism of injury (MOI) helps determine the potential for ___.
injury severity
In trauma assessment, assess ___ for major bleeding first.
circulation
The maximum blood loss tolerated by adults before shock is typically ___% of body weight.
15–20
The term ___ indicates the immediate treatment provided at the scene of an injury.
pre-hospital care
The term for altering consciousness in medical emergencies is ___.
altered mental status
For respiratory distress, administer ___ as needed.
oxygen
The acronym ___ assists in remembering the components of a primary assessment in trauma.
ABCDE
A life-threatening arrhythmia treated with defibrillation is ___.
ventricular fibrillation
What is S&S
Signs and symptoms
In the assessment of shock, vital signs should focus on ___ and capillary refill time.
blood pressure
The common decision-making model for EMTs is referred to as the ___ process.
ADPIE
An EMT's role in crisis situations includes establishing ___ with command personnel.
command
Quickly identifying altered mental status often relies on the ___ method.
AVPU (Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive)
Effective triage follows the ___ principle: Life-threatening injuries take precedence.
MCI (Mass Casualty Incident)
Communication protocol during operations requires adherence to the ___ model.
SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation)
For scene safety, EMTs must perform a thorough ___ assessment before patient care.
scene