BB by Sir Sam

B

1. What genetic information is provided by hemagglutination testing for red cell antigens?*

a. Genotype

b. Phenotype

c. Zygosity

d. Polymorphism

D

2. Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies?*

a. Anti-Fya

b. Anti-k

c. Anti-Jsa

d. Anti-K

A

3. Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?*

a. 4 hours

b. 8 hours

c. 12 hours

d. 24 hours

D

 

4. What is the correct order of centrifugation in the preparation of platelets from a unit of whole blood?*

a. Hard spin followed by hard spin

b. Light spin followed by light spin

c. Hard spin followed by light spin

d. Light spin followed by hard spin

D

Rh antibodies react best at what temperature (°C)?*

a. 15

b. 18

c. 22

d. 37

D

6. What is the shelf life of deglycerolized RBCs?*

a. 4 hours

b. 6 hours

c. 12 hours

d. 24 hours

C

7. What antibodies are present in polyspecific AHG reagent?*

a. Anti-IgG

b. Anti-IgM and anti-IgG

c. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

d. Anti-C3d

B

8. What are the temperature limits for shipping RBCs?*

a. 1°C to 6°C

b. 1°C to 10°C

c. 2°C to 8°C

d. 20°C to 24°C

9. Which of the following is the most effective antibody for complement fixation?*

a. IgG

b. IgM

 c. IgA

d. IgE

A

10. What is the best method for WBC reduction?*

a. Filtration

b. Washing

c. Irradiation

 d. Thawing

C

11. When should be the last donation for an autologous donor before the scheduled operation?*

a. 24 hours

b. 48 hours

c. 72 hours

 d. 1 week

D

12. Which of the following does not destroy Kell antigens?*

a. ZZAP

b. DTT

c. Glycine EDTA

d. Formol citrate

D

13. Which of the following adverse complications of transfusion is prevented by the irradiation of blood components?*

a. TRALI

b. Hyperkalemia

c. Febrile

d. TA-GVHD

A

14. You have added IgG-sensitized red cells to a negative indirect antiglobulin test. You observe agglutination in the tube. What situation was not controlled for in testing by adding these control cells?*

a. The addition of patient serum

b. The addition of AHG reagent

c. Adequate washing of cell suspension

d. Adequate potency of AHG reagent

D

15. What is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet component at outdate?*

a. 6

b. 5.9

c. 6.8

d. 6.2

B

16. What is the sample for DAT?*

a. Heparinized

b. EDTA

c. Sodium citrate

d. Oxalate

B

17. The following are routinely performed as screening tests for donors, except:   *

a. Anti-HBs

b. CMV

c. HCV

d. HIV

A

18. How would you grade an agglutination reaction if you observe many small agglutinates in a background of free cells in tube testing?

a. 1+

b. 2+

c. 3+

d. 4+

B

19. With which of the following red cell phenotypes would anti-Jka react most strongly?

a. Jk(a-b+)

b. Jk(a+b-)

c. Jk(a+b+)

d. Jk(a-b-)

D

20. What are the gene products of the A and B genes?  

a. Glycolipids

b. Glycoproteins

c. Oligosaccharides

d. Transferase enzymes

C

21. Part of the daily quality control in the blood bank laboratory is the testing of reagent antisera with corresponding antigen-positive and antigen-negative red cells. What does this procedure ensure?

a. Antibody class

b. Antibody titer

c. Antibody specificity

 d. Antibody sensitivity

C

22. Where can you locate information regarding reagent limitations?

a. SOPs

b. Blood bank computer system

c. Product inserts

d. Product catalogs

B

23. Which of the following items is mandated by law for all blood banks?

a. Blood bank refrigerator

b. Written laboratory safety program

c. BSC

d. Foot-operated hand wash

C

24. The temperature for incubation of the indirect anti-globulin test should be _______.

a. 24°C

b. 6°C

c. 37 °C

d. 37°C ± 10

B

25. What bleed is detected by the rosette test used for screening for a fetomaternal hemorrhage?   

a. 5 ml

b. 10 ml

c. 20 ml

d. 30 ml

D

26. Which of the following tests is not necessary when testing a cord blood sample?

a. ABO

b. D

c. DAT

d. Antibody Screen

A

27. What is the greatest danger to the newborn affected by HDFN postpartum?  

a. Kernicterus

b. anemia

c. Conjugated Bilirubin

d. Low L/S Ration

C

28. What is the time frame for RhIG administration after delivery?   

a. 6 hrs

b. 48 hrs

c. 72 hrs

d. 96 hrs

D

29. What is the first step when a transfusion reaction is suspected?

a. Contact the blood bank and attending physician

b. Assess for symptoms of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

c. Immediately collect a blood sample for crossmatch verification

d. Stop the transfusion

C

30. Select the type of transfusion reaction that presents with dyspnea, severe headache, and peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion.

a. Hemolytic

b. TRALI

c. TACO

d. Anaphylactic

A

31. A patient has experienced two febrile nonhemolytic reactions after RBC transfusion. What is the preferred blood component if future transfusions are necessary?

a. Leukocyte-reduced RBCs

b. Irradiated RBCs

c. Cytomegalovirus-negative RBCs

d. Group O, D-negative RBCs

D

32. What reagent would be selected to detect the presence of unexpected red cell antibodies in a patient’s serum sample?

a. A1 and B cells

b. Panel cells

c. IgG-sensitized cells

d. Screening cells

A

33. Which of the following phenotypes would react with anti-f?

a. rr

b. R1R1

c. R2R2

d. R1R2

D

34. Anti-D was detected in the serum of a D-positive person. What is a possible explanation?   

a. The antibody is really anti-G

b. Compound antibody was formed

c. Regulator gene failure

 d. Missing antigen epitope

B

35. Which of the following antibodies is neutralized by pooled human urine?   

a. Anti-Csa

b. Anti-Sda

c. Anti-Ch

d. Anti-Vel

D

36. What procedure helps distinguish between an anti-Fya and anti-Jka in an antibody mixture?    

a. Lowering the pH of the patient’s serum

b. Using a thiol reagent

c. Testing at colder temperatures

d. Testing ficin-treated panel cells

A

37. What is the purpose of including a reagent control when interpreting group AB, D-positive red cells after testing with a low-protein anti-D reagent?

a. To detect false-positive agglutination reactions

b. To detect false-negative agglutination reactions

c. To identify a mix-up with a patient’s sample

d. To confirm ABO typing results

B

38. After the addition of anti-D reagent to a patient’s red cell suspension, agglutination was observed. The result with anti-A reagent was negative. What is the interpretation of this patient’s D typing?  

a. Patient is D-negative

b. Patient is D-positive

c. Cannot interpret the test

d. Invalid result

C

39. In PCR testing, the initial step involves adding the DNA in question to a mixture of Taq polymerase, excess nucleotides, MgCl2 , and primers. Where does the amplification process take place?   

a. Flow cytometer

b. Capillary array sequencer

c. Thermal cycler

d. Electrophoresis chamber

C

40. What would the DAT results demonstrate if the test was performed on a clotted sample stored at 4°C?   

a. In vivo complement attachment

b. In vivo IgG attachment

c. In vitro complement attachment

d. In vitro IgM attachment

C

41. What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110-lb donor, including samples for processing?   

a. 450 ml

b. 500 ml

c. 525 ml

d. 550 ml

A

42. Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons?  

a. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion

 b. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets

c. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels

d. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability

B

43. When should quality control be performed on routine blood typing reagents?   

a. At the beginning of each shift

b. once daily

c. weekly

d. Only when opening a new vial

B

44. The temperature of a blood refrigerator without a continuous recording device should be recorded:  

a. Daily

b. Every 4 hours

c. Once every 24 hours

d. Every 30 minutes

B

45. Concerning the component and the required quality control results, which of the following is a true statement?   

a. FFP must have 80 international units of fibrinogen in 7 units tested

b. Cryoprecipitate must have 80 international units of factor VIII

c. Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells must have fewer than 3.3 x 1011 WBCs in each unit

d. Platelets must have no red blood cells

C

46. A 63-year-old man with a hemoglobin value of 130 g/dL and pulse of 80 beats/min, who received human pituitary growth hormone (PGH) when he was 10 years old, presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD,) or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?   

a. Accept the donor

b. TD, because of the human PGH

c. PD, because of the human PGH

d. PD, because of the high hemoglobin value

A

47. An 18-year-old female with a hematocrit of 38%, temperature of 37C, and blood pressure of 175/ 90 mm Hg presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?

a. Accept

b. TD, blood pressure is too high for a person of her age

c. TD, temperature is too high

d. PD, for all values listed

D

48. What is the expected therapeutic effect in the recipient’s after the transfusion of 1 unit of RBCs?   

a. Increase of 0.5%

b. Increase of 1%

c. Increase of 2%

d. Increase of 3%

49. In the gel test, a button of cells at the bottom of the well is a:   

a. 4+ positive reaction

b. 1+ positive reaction

c. Negative reaction

 d. Invalid reaction

C

50. A patient who has a phenotype group AB, D-negative requires 1 unit of plasma*

a. Group A, D-negative

b. Group B, D-positive

c. Group AB, D-positive

d. Group O, D-negative

C

51. An antibody commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions is:   

a. Anti-Lua

b. Anti-S

c. Anti-Jkb

d. Anti-M

D

52. Chronic granulomatous disease is associated with a depression of the antigens in the ______ blood group system

a. Duffy

b. Kidd

c. P

d. Kell

A

53. What immunodominant sugar confers B blood group specificity?

a. D-galactose

b. L-fructose

c. N-acetylgalactosamine

d. L-glucose

D

54. What immunoglobulin class is primarily associated with ABO antibodies?   

a. IgA

b. IgG

c. IgE

d. IgM

D

55. Using known sources of reagent antisera (known antibodies) to detect ABO antigens on a patient’s red cells is known as:   

a. Rh typing

b. Reverse Grouping

c. DAT

d. Forward Grouping

D

56. Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group inheritance? 

a. Dominant

b. Recessive

c. Sex-linked

d. Codominant

C

57. What reagents are derived from plant extracts?  

a. Panel cells

b. Commercial anti-B

c. Lectins

d. Antiglobulin reagents

B

58. Hemagglutination can be enhanced by increasing:   

a. The temperature higher than 37C

b. The incubation time

c. Increasing the antigen concentration

d. pH greater than 7

D

59. Of the red cells listed, which has the most D antigen present?

a. Rh null

b. D-positive

c. dce/dce

d. D – –

B

60. Which of the following antibodies is classified as “biphasic” and an autoantibody?   

a. Anti-B

b. Anti-P

c. Anti-H

d. Anti-Lea

C

61. An endpoint of tube testing other than agglutination that must also be considered a positive reaction is called:   

a. Clumping

b. Mixed Field

c. Hemolysis

d. Microscopic

D

62. An IgA-deficient patient with clinically significant anti-IgA requires which of the following?  

a. Leukocyte-reduced fresh frozen plasma

b. CMV-seronegative RBCs

c. Irradiated RBCs and platelets

d. Washed RBCs

B

63. Anti-H will react weakest with blood from a person with ______.   

a. Group O

b. Group A1

c. Group A2

d. Group A2B

B

64. Which of the following antibodies do not match the others in terms of optimal reactive temperature?  

a. Anti-Fya

b. Anti-M

c. Anti-K

d. Anti-S

B

65. The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency and is found on most red cells. How often would one be expected to find the corresponding antibody?  

a. Often

b. rarely

c. Always

d. Never

C

66. Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period?

a. Rubella

b. Varicella Zoster

c. HPV

d. Smallpox

A

67. Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation?   

a. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

 b. A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

c. A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia

d. A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

C

68. What does a minor crossmatch consist of?  

a. Recipient plasma and recipient red cells

b. Recipient plasma and donor red cells

c. Recipient red cells and donor plasma

d. Donor plasma and donor red cells

D

69. Most common Diego phenotypes is often associated with what ancestry?  

a. Asian

b. African

c. European

d. Mongolian

A

70. Minor blood group that causes HDFN   

a. Gerbich

b. Gregory

c. Vel

d. Holley