Review exams 1 and 3

which of the following diagrams is a correctly labeled representative slice of the horizontal long axis of the left ventricular myocardium?

box "C"

Static bone imaging is is performed several hours after tracer administration to permit:

a. maximum tracer uptake in the skeleton

b. tracer clearance form normal bone tissue

c. tracer clearance from sites of infiltration

d. blood clearance of excess tracer

e. tracer clearance from the kidneys

d. blood clearance of excess tracer

For which of the following clinical indications would be limited bone imaging ("spot" views) be most appropriate?

a. rule out skeletal metastases

b. evaluate Paget's disease

c. evaluate temporomandibular joint pain

d. with history of child abuse, rule out occult factures

e. rule out kidney stones

c. evaluate temporomandibular joint pain

Three- or four-phase bone imaging is particularly useful when which of the following conditions is expected?

a. osteomyelitis

b. osteoporosis

c. skeletal metastases

d. stress fracture

e. compound fracture

a. osteomyelitis

The standard views performed in a lung perfusion study are:

a. anterior and posterior only

b. posterior and obliques only

c. anterior, posterior, and lateral of the affected lung

d. laterals and obliques

e. anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques

e. anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques

Upon completion of an imaging procedure, the patient sits up quickly and complains of dizziness and feeling faint. The most appropriate action for the technologist would be to:

a. have the patient stand and walk around the room

b. check vital signs

c. have patient lie down again

d. talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply

e. ask the patient if they have a family history of syncope

d. talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply

All of the following statements about performing a lung ventilation study with [99mTc] pentetate aerosol are true, except:

a. multiple projections may be obtained with one dose of tracer

b. the patient is disconnected from the nebulizer after inhalation of the aerosol

c. the patient is imaged while inhaling particles from the nebulizer

d. the face mask, tubing, and nebulizer must be disposed of as radioactive waste

e. some residual tracer may be present in the esophagus

c. the patient is imaged while inhaling particles from the nebulizer

The purpose of wrapping the legs with elastic bandages before performing a radionuclide venogram with [99mTc] MAA is to:

a. distend the veins in the feet

b. prevent blood clots from traveling to the lung

c. suppress superficial circulation

d. trap the tracer in the lower extremities

e. increase low blood pressure

c. suppress superficial circulation

When the radiation level coming from a radio iodine therapy patient in isolation is measured, it should be measured:

a. every day

b. everyday at the same time

c. at the same distance froth patient each time

d. every day and at the same distance from the patient each time

e. at different distances from the patient each time

d. every day and at the same distance from the patient each time

The function of a draw sheet is to provide:

a. support for the patient during a stretcher to bed transfer

b. warmth to the patient during the procedure

c. protection from infectious disease

d. patient privacy during an imaging procedure

e. an activity for the patient during transfer

a. support for the patient during a stretcher to bed transfer

A gated equilibrium ventricular function study can be performed with which of the following 99mTc-labeled tracers:

a. pentetate

b. medronate

c. human serum albumin

d. pyrophosphate

e. macro aggregated albumin

c. human serum albumin

Stress-rest myocardial imaging performed with 99mTc-sestamibi requires two administrations of tracer, because the tracer:

a. does not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium

b. rapidly washes out of the myocardium after administration

c. has too short a half-life to permit delayed imaging

d. must be administered immediately after its preparation

e. has a fast biological half-life

a. does not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium

In a normal hepatobiliary study, which of the following structures will not be visualized?

a. liver

b. common bile duct

c. spleen

d. gallbladder

e. intestines

c. spleen

In preparation for hepatobiliary imaging, patients are required to fast to:

a. prevent renal uptake of the tracer

b. enhance liver uptake of the tracer

c. minimize the risk of radioactive emesis

d. avoid stimulating the gallbladder

e. avoid gastric interference

d. avoid stimulating the gallbladder

To determine the patency of a LaVeen Shunt, the radiopharmaceutical is administered into:

a. a vein

b. the circle of Willis

c. the intrathecal space

d. the shunt tubing

e. the peritoneal cavity

e. the peritoneal cavity

Which of the following is the correct patient/camera positioning for imaging a transplanted kidney?

a

In performing an effective renal plasma flow determination, the injection site should be imaged to:

a. quantitate the about of tracer deposited at the injection site

b. calculate the amount of injected activity

c. rule out tracer infiltration

d. correct the kidney transit time of the tracer

e. correct the urinary output graph

c. rule out tracer infiltration

Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires which of the following?

a. intravenous injection of the tracer

b. use of a renal agent

c. administration of furosemide

d. catheterization of patient

e. calculation of ERPF

d. catheterization of patient

All of the following conditions may demonstrate uptake of [111-In] labeled leukocytes except:

a. osteomyelitis

b. pulmonary embolism

c. dental abscess

d. ostomy site

e. ever of unknown origin

b. pulmonary embolism

Signs/symptoms that a patient is going into anaphylactic shock include all of the following except:

a. skin splotches

b. pallor

c. restlessness

d. tachycardia

e. hot, dry skin

e. hot, dry skin

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood-brain barrier?

a. [99m-Tc] pertechnetate

b. [99m-Tc] gluceptate

c. [99m-Tc] pentetate

d. [99m-Tc] bicisate

e. [99m-Tc] sulfur colloid

d. [99m-Tc] bicisate

The patency of ventriculoperitoneal shunts may be assessed with which of the following tracers?

a. [111-In] chloride

b. [99m-Tc] MAA

c. [99m-Tc] bicisate

d. [99m-Tc] pertechnetate

e. [99m-Tc] pentetate

d. [99m-Tc] pertechnetate

According to the FDA, written informed consent must be obtained to administer which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a. [123-I] sodium iodide

b. [99mTc] sestamibi

c. [131-I] sodium iodide

d. [99mTc] bicisate

e. [125-I] sodium iodide

c. [131-I] sodium iodide

Patient preparation for [89-Sr] chloride therapy includes all fo the following except:

a. ruling out pregnancy

b. complete blood count

c. discontinuation of pain medication

d. renal function studies

e. correlated physical exam

c. discontinuation of pain medication

Patient preparation for [131-I] therapy for thyroid cancer includes all of the following except:

a. ruling out pregnancy

b. diet restrictions

c. reviewing isolation requirements

d. discontinuing breast-feeding

e. administering oral potassium iodide

e. administering oral potassium iodide

One verification method used to ensure that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered is to check the label found on the vial. The best times to check this label would include all except:

a. before the vial is removed from the shelf

b. before the radiopharmaceutical is dispensed

c. after the vial is placed back on the shelf

d. after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient

e. after the syringe shield is added

d. after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient

When dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging is performed, which tracer is used for stress and which for rest?

c. REST: [99mTc] Sesatmibi. STRESS: [201-Tl] Thallous chloride

If 99mTc-sulfur colloid is administered to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding, the bleeding can be best visualized how long after the radiopharmaceutical is administered?

a. 20-30min

b. 10-15min

c. 45min-1hr

d. anytime up to 24hr

e. anytime up to 48hr

b. 10-15min

Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a cardiac first-pass study?

a. axillary vein

b. cephalic vein

c. median basilic vien

d. dorsal vien

e. carotid vein

c. median basilic vien

Patient preparation for a 131-I therapy includes:

a. a low-iodine diet for 1week before the therapy

b. a high-iodine diet for 1week before the therapy

c. a low-carbohydrate diet for 3days before the therapy

d. not consuming any salt for 1 week before the therapy

e. not consuming potassium for 1 week before the therapy

a. a low-iodine diet for 1week before the therapy

For 67-Ga infection imaging, the proper route of administration of the radiopharmaceutical is what?

a. by inhalation

b. intramuscularly

c. orally

d. intravenously

e. intrathecal

d. intravenously

Which of the following statements best describes the preferred injection and blood sampling site(s) when performing a plasma volume?

a. place a butterfly needle in an antecubital vein for injection of the radiopharmaceutical and subsequent blood sampling

b. intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained form the same vein

c. intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein in one arm, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from an antecubital vein in the opposite arm

d. intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from a different antecubital vein in the same arm

e. an angiocath should be placed in an antecubital vein form injection fo the radiopharmaceutical and subsequent blood sampling

c. intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein in one arm, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from an antecubital vein in the opposite arm

When administering an intravenous injection, the needle should be inserted into the vein at an angle of:

a. 90*

b. 45*

c. 5*

d. 15*

e. 1*

d. 15*

When counting 51-Cr red blood cell samples in a scintillation well counter, the window should be set around the photo peak at:

a. 320keV

b. 159keV

c. 81keV

d. 511keV

e. 664keV

a. 320keV

Which tomography plane of the heart displays all walls fo the left ventricle?

a. horizontal long axis

b. short axis

c. transaxial

d. vertical long axis

e. sagittal

b. short axis

When performing a radio iodine thyroid uptake with an uptake probe, the most appropriate collimator to use is a:

a. low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel-hole collimator

b. converging collimator

c. flat-field collimator

d. straight-bore collimator

e. diverging collimator

c. flat-field collimator

Which of the following would not be in accordance with electrical safety guidelines?

a. use of three-pronged plugs and outlets

b. keep walk areas free form electrical cords

c. disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord

d. not using frayed or kinked cords

e. using a 25amp appliance in a 30am outlet

c. disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord

Which of the following statements about the image of the left ventricle slice shown here is correct?

a. it is incorrectly labeled images of the vertical long axis slice

b. it is an incorrectly labeled image of a horizontal long axis slice

c. it its a correctly labeled image of the vertical long axis slice

d. it is a correctly labeled image of a horizontal long axis slice

e. it is a correctly image of a short axis slice

d. it is a correctly labeled image of a horizontal long axis slice

When using [18F] FDG for pet imaging, which of the following should be considered as a contraindication for performing the study?

a. low-carb diet

b. blood glucose level of 120mg/dL

c. high-iodine diet within past week

d. low-iodine diet within past week

e. blood glucose level of 200mg/dL

e. blood glucose level of 200mg/dL

A 1:25 dilution of a solution with a concentration of 10uCi/mL is prepared. What is the tracer concentration in the dilution?

a. 0.04 uCi/mL

b. 0.25 uCi/mL

c. 2.5 uCi/mL

d. 0.4 uCi/mL

e. 4.5 uCi/mL

d. 0.4 uCi/mL

In preparation for [18F] fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) imaging, patients are required to fast to:

a. prevent hypoglycemic episodes

b. enhance cardiac uptake

c. eliminate the need for laxatives

d. maximize tumor uptake

e. prevent brown fat disposition

d. maximize tumor uptake

Which of the following steps is performed before the administration of [90Y] ibritumomab tiuxetan therapy?

a. determining PSA level

b. fasting for 8hr

c. NPO from midnight before the study

d. intravenous hydration for 4hr

e. whole-body imaging with [111-In] ibritumomab tiuxetan

e. whole-body imaging with [111-In] ibritumomab tiuxetan

The size of a 99Mo/99mTc generator is expressed as the total activity of:

a. 99mTc on the column

b. 99Mo on the column

c. 99mTc eluted from the column

d. decay-corrected 99mTc available at time of elution

e. decay-corrected 99Mo available at time of elution

b. 99Mo on the column

If 1.2 Ci of 99mTc are eluted from a generator in a 5.7mL volume. what is the concentration of the eluate?

a. 210mCi/mL

b. 475mCi/mL

c. 32.4 MBq/mL

d. 5.7GBq/mL

e. 7.5GBq/mL

a. 210mCi/mL

If 633mCi are expected to be eluted from a wet-column generator, what volume evacuated vial should be used to obtain an eluate concentration of approximately 30mCi/mL:

a. 20mL

b. 10mL

c. 15mL

d. 5mL

e. 25mL

a. 20mL

The maximum allowable limit of Al+3 in 99mTc eluate is set by the :

a. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

b. Environmental Protection Agency

c. U.S. Pharmacopeia

d. U.S. Department of Transportation

e. U.S. Department of Energy

c. U.S. Pharmacopeia

If the following measurements were obtained from an assay of 99mTc eluate: 99Mo=8uCi; 99mTc=652mCi:

then the 99Mo concentration in 1mCi of 99mTc is:

a. 81.5uCi/mCi

b. 8.0uCi/mCi

c. 0.000012uCi/mCi

d. 0.012uCi/mCi

e. 0.0012uCi/mCi

d. 0.012uCi/mCi

Increased levels of Al3+ in 99mTc eluted used to prepare [99mTc] sulfur colloid may cause the tracer to concentrate in the:

a. liver

b. lungs

c. red blood cells

d. thyroid

e. brain

b. lungs

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be ordered to treat bone pain caused by bony metastases?

a. [131-I] sodium iodide

b. [111-In] oxine

c. [32-P] chromic phosphate

d. [153-Sm] lexidronam

e. [123-I] sodium iodide

d. [153-Sm] lexidronam

According to NRC regulations, reports of medical events sent to the NRC must include all of the following information except:

a. whether the patient or a relative was notified

b. a description of the incident

c. the patients name

d. the referring physician's name

e. why the event occurred

c. the patients name

All of the following radiopharmaceuticals are prepared with reduced [99mTc] pertechnetate except:

a. [99mTc] medronate

b. [99mTc] oxidronate

c. [99mTc] macro aggregated albumin

d. [99mTc] lidofenin

e. [99mTc] sulfur colloid

e. [99mTc] sulfur colloid

What is the approximate final concentration of the [99mTc] sulfur colloid if 125mCi are prepared using the following reagents?

a. 33.8 mCi/mL

b. 15.8 mCi/mL

c. 21.3 mCi/mL

d. 14.9 mCi/mL

e. 38.3 mCi/mL

d. 14.9 mCi/mL

On the basis of the USP criteria, which of the following statements about the particle size of MAA preparations is true:

a. no particles should exceed 90um in diameter

b. All particles have the same diameter

c. Some particles may be smaller than 10um

d. up to 10% of the particles may exceed 150um in diameter

e. up to 25% of the particles may exceed 150um in diameter

c. Some particles may be smaller than 10um

An eluate of 99mTc-pertechnetate is assayed for 99Mo contamination immediately after elution. If the 99Mo breakthrough is determined to be 0.035uCi 99Mo/mCi99mTc and the shelf life of the eluate is 12hr, for how many hours after elution can it be used?

d

The radiochemical purity of a radiopharmaceutical is determined using a solvent/support media combination with these Rf values:

Radiopharmaceutical: 0

Radiochemical impurity: 1.0

After the radio-chromatography strip is developed and cut in half, the solvent front half of the strip counted 15,345 cpm and the origin half of the strip counted 55,632 cpm. What is the radiochemical purity of the sample?

a. 78.4%

b. 27.6%

c. 72.4%

d. 21.6%

e. 89.9%

a. 78.4%

On the basis of the radio pharmaceutical vial label information shown here, which of the preparations should the technologist administer on July 9 at 0800 to perform three-phase bone imaging>

d

The standard adult dosage of [123-I] sodium iodide is 400uCi +/-10%

On the basis of the vial label information shown here:

how many [123-I] sodium iodide capsules should be administered to the patient at 0800 on October 5?

a. four

b. the capsules may not be administered until 1200

c. two

d. three

e. five

d. three

A technologist need 185 MBq [131-I] sodium iodide solution on Nov 3. The label on the radiopharmaceutical vial contains the following information:

what volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on Nov 3?

4.2 mL

In labeling red blood cells with 51-Cr sodium chromate, which of the following reagents is used to prevent the blood sample form coagulating?

a. heparin

b. EDTA

c. ACD solution

d. sodium fluoride

e. sodium chloride

c. ACD solution

Which of the following medications has been shown to interfere with in vivo 99mTc labeling of red blood cells?

a. doxorubicin

b. heparin

c. penicillin

d. adenosine

e. dobutamine

b. heparin

[99mTc] pentetate was prepared using the following reagents:

What dose calibrator readings would verify that the maximum activity of [99mTc] pentetate was prepared form the reagents?

a. 100 mCi

b. 160mCi

c. 125mCi

d. 200mCi

e. 300mCi

c. 125mCi

In the radio pharmacy laboratory, good radiation protection technique includes which of the following practices?

a. wearing disposable gloves when withdrawing unit does

b. manipulating needles, syringes, and vials containing radioactivity at arm's length

c. using syringe shields when preparing unit doses

d. wearing disposable gloves when giving injections

e. using a butterfly setup when giving injections

c. using syringe shields when preparing unit doses

If Tc99m exametazime is prepared at 0900 to label white blood cells, it should be used no later than what time?

a. 1300

b. 1100

c. 0900

d. 1500

e. 1700

c. 0900

Upon visual inspection, a vial of 99mTc-medronate appears to be white and slightly turbid. What should the technologist do?

a. prepare unit doses from the vial

b. adjust the pH of the preparation

c. add a diluent to the vial

d. filter the preparation with a membrane filter

e. prepare another vial of 99mTc-medronate

e. prepare another vial of 99mTc-medronate

On the basis of the chromatography results shown here: what is the percentage radiochemical impurity of the 99m-Tc pentetate preparation?

What is the percentage of radiochemical impurity of the 99m-Tc pentetate preparation?

a. 74.6%

b. 93.1%

c. 94.8%

d. 98.3%

e. 6.9%

e. 6.9%

Which of the following is considered a Quality Control daily test for a CT scanner?

a. linearity of CT numbers

b. low- and high-contrast resolution

c. image slice thickness

d. CT number accuracy

e. spacial resolution

d. CT number accuracy

Of the following needles, which size of needle is most likely to cause coring of the rubber closure of a medication vial?

c. 22 Gauge 1 Inch

According to NRC regulations, which of the following signs should e posted on the door of a radio pharmacy laboratory in which radiation levels have been measured to be 7.5 mR/hr?

a. "Caution: Radiation Area"

b. "Caution: Radioactive Materials"

c. No posting is required

d. "Caution: High Radiation Area"

e. "Caution: Very High Radiation Area"

a. "Caution: Radiation Area"

To determine the transportation index for a package containing radioactive material, the package must be monitored at:

a. the surface of the package

b. 6in from the surface

c. 1 m from the surface

d. 2 m from the surface

e. 3m from the surface

c. 1 m from the surface

To comply with NRC regulations, personnel radiation exposure records must be maintained:

a. for 3 years

b. indefinitely

c. for 5 years

d. for 5 years

e. for 7 years

b. indefinitely

If a point source produces an exposure rate of 50mR/hr at 1 foot, at what distance from the source will the exposure rate be reduced to 2 mR/hr?

a. 5.5 ft

b. 5 ft

c. 10 ft

d. 25 ft

e. 50 ft

b. 5 ft

An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear a personal radiation monitor must wear it at work except when:

a. leaving the nuclear medicine department

b. radiation exposure results from patients who had radioactive materials administered at another facility.

c. badge readings are likely to exceed allowable limits

d. personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure.

e. calibrating equipment

d. personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure.

According to the NRC, a written directive for the administration of 15mCi of 131-I sodium iodide must include the following information:

a. a patient's thyroid uptake value

b. dosage

c. patient's birth date

d. lot number of the radiopharmaceutical

e. patient's name

b. dosage

According to the NRC, the annual radiation exposure to members of the general public must be limited to no more than:

a. 500 mRem

b. 2 mRem

c. 50 mRem

d. 100 mRem

e. 1 mRem

d. 100 mRem

Which of the following materials is the best choice for shielding 32-P?

a. lead

b. aluminum

c. plastic

d. no shielding is required for 32-P

e. tungsten

c. plastic

A technologist is measuring room background with an end-window G-M survey meter. The meter shows the following reading:

What should the technologist do next?

a. adjust the scale of the meter

b. record the meter reading as the room background

c. choose another area of the room to measure background

d. recalibrate the survey meter

e. check the probe for contamination

a. adjust the scale of the meter

During a routine room survey for radioactive contamination, a technologist identifies an area on the floor that exceeds the trigger level. Which of the following should the technologist do next?

a. Determine the identity of the radionuclide present in the contaminated area.

b. Ascertain the source of the contamination

c. Perform a dose calibrator background determination

d. Cover the area until it has decayed to background level

e. Perform a wipe test to determine if the contamination is removable

e. Perform a wipe test to determine if the contamination is removable

In the case of a radioactive spill that involves contamination and life-threatening injuries to personnel, which of the following actions should be give priority?

a. decontamination of the victim

b. medical treatment of the seriously injured

c. confinement of the radioactive spill

d. notification of the radiation safety officer

e. establishment of hot and cold zones

b. medical treatment of the seriously injured

Nurses caring for 131-I therapy patients who require isolation would be advised that the major sources of contamination include the patient's:

a. feces, urine and blood

b. urine, saliva and perspiration

c. blood and urine

d. sputum and blood

e. feces and blood

b. urine, saliva and perspiration

According to the NRC, regulations, a technologist cannot use a diagnostic dosage that exceeds 20% of the dosage prescribed by the authorized user unless:

a. there is no other radiopharmaceutical available

b. the patient weighs more than 20% over the standard reference weight

c. the authorized user approves the individual dosage

d. the patients physician approves the individual dosage

e. the radiologist or nuclear medicine physician approves the individual dosage

c. the authorized user approves the individual dosage

If a woman who is breast-feeding needs 131-I therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer, how long must she suspend breast feeding.

a. 48hr

b. 1 week

c. She may not resume it with this child

d. suspension of breast-feeding is not necessary in this case

e. 72hr

c. She may not resume it with this child

According to the NRC, wipe-test results must be reported as:

a. cpm

b. mR/hr

c. dpm

d mRem/hr

e. mCi/mL

c. cpm

15 mRem is equivalent to how many mSv?

a. 0.15

b. 0.015

c. 0.0015

d. 1.5

e. 15

a. 0.15

A package containing radio-pharmaceuticals is delivered before the nuclear medicine department opens. According to the NRC, the package must be checked in and monitored:

a. as soon as the department opens

b. within 3 hr after the department opens

c. within 6 hr after the department opens

d. with in 24hr of the time of delivery

e. within 48hr of the time of delivery

b. within 3 hr after the department opens

On the basis of these data:

Wipe Test Count: 375 cpm

Background Count: 120 cpm

and a well counter efficiency of 45%, the results of the wipe test in dpm are:

a. 49 dpm

b. 115 dpm

c. 255 dpm

d. 423 dpm

e. 567 cpm

e. 567 cpm

On the basis of this graph:

The dose calibrator linearity test results demonstrate that:

a. the instrument consistently gives hight reading than expected

b. lower activities are measured as accurately as higher activities

c. the instrument is operating linearly over the range of activities measured

d. the instrument should be used to measure only millicurie

amounts of radioactivity

e. the instrument consistently gives lower readings than expected

a. the instrument consistently gives hight reading than expected

The calibration of a scintillation spectrometer yielded the following data:

What is the operating voltage of this instrument?

a. 615

b. 625

c. 620

d. 630

e. 635

c. 620

An energy resolution test is performed on a scintillation spectrometer using 137Cs. If the FWHM is determined to be 53keV and the photopeak energy is 662keV, what is the % energy resolution of the instrument?

a. 0.08%

b. 12.5%

c. 1.3%

d. 8%

e. 25%

d. 8%

If a dose calibrator linearity test begins by assaying 50mCi of 99mTc pertechnetate, for how long should the test be carried out?

a. 24hr

b. 48hr

c. 72hr

d. 66hr

e. 96hr

d. 66hr

If a PLES transmission phantom is used, how many images must be acquired to assess linearity over the entire FOV of a scintillation camera?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 2

d. 5

e. 4

c. 2

According to the NRC, all dose calibrator quality control results must be retained for:

a. 1 year

b. 5 years

c. the life of the instrument

d. as long as the facility's license is in effect

e. 3 years

e. 3 years

What is the effect of changing the order of a Butterworth filter from 3 to 5?

a. the image will be smoother

b. the star artifact will be eliminated

c. the image will appear unchanged

d. the image will be sharper

e. the image will be enlarged

d. the image will be sharper

A 256x256 matrix requires how much more computer memory than 64x64 matrix?

a. 2 times more

b. 16 times more

c. 6 times more

d. 4 times more

e. 32 times more

b. 16 times more

Which of the following statements about an image acquired with zoom is true?

a. image resolution is increased

b. background counts are increased

c. more memory is required

d. contrast is decreased

e. specificity is increased

a. image resolution is increased

If a 99mTc-medronate bone image and a 111In-tagged white blood cell image are acquired simultaneously with a 128 x 128 word-mode matrix, how much computer memory is required to store the images?

a. 32kB

b. 16kB

c. 256kB

d. 128kB

e. 64kB

e. 64kB

An uptake probe would be used for which of the following studies:

a. splenic sequestration

b. red cell mass

c. red cell survival

d. plasma volume test

e. liver sequestration

a. splenic sequestration

How much memory will be needed for a gated-equilibrium cardiac function examination that is acquired in 30 frames with a 128 x 128 byte mode matrix?

a. 3,840 bytes

b. 16,384 bytes

c. 491,520 bytes

d. 546 bytes

e. 256 bytes

c. 491,520 bytes

What energies will be accepted by a 15% window placed around a centerline of 159keV:

a. 135-183 keV

b. 144-174 keV

c. 151-167 keV

d. 147-171 keV

e. 159-189 keV

d. 147-171 keV

A spect study is acquired using 60 projections over a 360º rotation.

Each projection is acquired for 0.5min. If the counting rate is 144,000 cpm, how many counts will be collected for the total acquisition?

a. 1,036,8000

b. 2,587,300

c. 3,640,000

d. 3,920,000

e. 4,320,000

e. 4,320,000

Using a 125uCi source, 30,500 cpm were collected during a camera sensitivity determination. If the background count is 1,200cpm, what is the sensitivity of the instrument:

a. 234 cpm/uCi

b. 244 cpm/uCi

c. 29,300 cpm

d. 3,662,500 cpm

e. 300,500 cpm

a. 234 cpm/uCi