Pharm Study guide questions E2 (copy)

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194 Terms

1
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What are the most likely respective Types of DM in dogs and cats?

Dogs: Type 1 (lack of insulin); Cats: Type 2 (lack of response to insulin)

2
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What are the two goals of DM treatment in dogs?

Eliminate clinical signs and improve comfort; prevent short-term complications such as DKA and hypoglycemia

3
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What is the primary goal of DM treatment in cats?

Remission

4
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What is the difference between amorphous and crystalline insulin?

Amorphous: insulin molecules uncoordinated and rapidly absorbed; Crystalline: coordinated crystals that slow absorption

5
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How do protamine, zinc, and myristic acid alter insulin absorption?

Protamine crystallizes insulin to slow absorption; Zinc forms hexamers to slow absorption; Myristic acid binds albumin so insulin releases slowly

6
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What is the short-acting insulin used in veterinary medicine and when do you use it?

Regular insulin used IV or IM for hyperglycemic crises such as DKA

7
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What are the starting drugs for dogs?

Intermediate-acting insulins

8
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What intermediate-acting insulin is sometimes referred to as Lente?

Vetsulin (a zinc preparation)

9
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What is important about matching insulin syringes?

Match syringe type to insulin concentration (40 U/mL vs 100 U/mL)

10
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What is important about Vetsulin?

Must be shaken before use

11
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What are the five long-acting insulins?

Ultralente; PZI; Glargine; Detemir; Degludec

12
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What are the unusual solubility characteristics of glargine and how does this impact dilutability?

Low pH makes it soluble in vial; precipitates after injection for slow release; should not be diluted casually

13
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What is the caveat about using Detemir in dogs?

Human formulation is 4× concentrated leading to increased hypoglycemia risk

14
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Why is relying on clinical signs not absolute for avoiding hypoglycemia in cats on long-acting insulin?

Cats may have hypoglycemia without clinical signs

15
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What are the current insulin recommendations for diabetic dogs and cats?

Dogs: NPH or Vetsulin; Cats: Glargine or Detemir or PZI

16
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What is the ultimate therapeutic goal for diabetic cats?

Remission

17
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Why is hypoglycemia especially concerning in pets?

It is life-threatening and pets cannot readily self-correct with snacks

18
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What is the Somogyi effect?

Rebound hyperglycemia caused by insulin overdose leading to rapid hypoglycemia followed by compensatory glucose release

19
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How do you detect the Somogyi effect and what do you do?

Dogs: BG curve; Cats: fructosamine; Reduce insulin dose and recheck in 2-5 days

20
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Why does acromegaly or sexual intactness complicate diabetes treatment?

Acromegaly causes severe insulin resistance; Intact animals may have underlying disease or hormone effects causing poor regulation

21
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Explain why renal disease may impact diabetes treatment.

Kidneys clear insulin so renal disease prolongs insulin duration; intermediate-acting insulin may last longer

22
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What is used to treat DKA?

Regular insulin via IV CRI or intermittent IM

23
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When are non-insulin diabetes drugs used?

Cats whose owners refuse insulin; adjunct for refractory diabetic dogs; post-remission cats needing diet support

24
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What drug has many uses in endocrine pharmacology?

Bromocriptine

25
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If a diabetic dog shows the Somogyi effect on Vetsulin, what insulin is the next choice?

PZI because it has longer duration; use same unit dose and repeat BG curve in 1 week

26
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Why are prandially administered non-insulin drugs not recommended in cats?

They are generally ineffective and not recommended

27
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Why is zinc additionally important in diabetes?

Zinc crystallizes insulin into hexamers slowing absorption

28
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How is insulin used in bovine and equine DM-like diseases?

Cattle ketosis: severe cases use PZI every other day with IV glucose; Fat cow ketosis: NPH twice daily with IV glucose; Equine metabolic syndrome: insulin not primary treatment

29
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What is streptozotocin and when is it used?

Alkylating agent toxic to DNA; selectively kills pancreatic islet cells via GLUT2; used to treat insulinomas

30
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How does the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary promote and regulate the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

TRH from hypothalamus stimulates TSH release; TSH stimulates T3, T4, and calcitonin synthesis and release; TSH increases NIS expression and thyroglobulin synthesis; T3 and T4 provide negative feedback on TRH and TSH

31
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What are the synthesis mechanisms for thyroid hormones?

Iodine enters thyroid via NIS; tyrosine on thyroglobulin is iodinated to MIT and DIT; TG is iodinated in follicle lumen; iodinated TG is endocytosed; proteolysis releases MIT and DIT; coupling MIT+DIT → T3; DIT+DIT → T4

32
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What are the release mechanisms for thyroid hormones?

TSH promotes release of T3 and T4 from follicular cells into plasma

33
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Name three drugs that can cause pseudohypothyroidism.

Glucocorticoids; phenobarbital; sulfonamide antibiotics

34
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What is the treatment for hypothyroidism in dogs?

T4 supplementation (levothyroxine) is gold standard

35
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What is the treatment for hypothyroidism in cats?

T4 supplementation for iatrogenic or congenital disease

36
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What is the treatment for hypothyroidism in horses?

T4 supplementation possible though true hypothyroidism is rare; sometimes used for weight loss in EMS

37
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What are the treatments for hyperthyroidism in the cat?

Low-iodine Y/D diet; methimazole inhibits thyroperoxidase; I-131 radiolysis; thyroidectomy after methimazole pretreatment

38
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What is the treatment for hypoparathyroidism?

Oral calcium lactate or carbonate plus calcitriol

39
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What is the treatment for milk fever?

IV calcium borogluconate

40
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What is the major NT of the PNS?

Acetylcholine

41
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What are the major effector NTs of the SNS at the organ or tissue?

Norepinephrine; epinephrine

42
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What NT is common to the SNS and PNS?

Acetylcholine

43
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What are the seven major receptors of the ANS?

Cholinergic ion channels at SNS/PNS ganglia and NMJ; muscarinic GPCRs post-ganglion; adrenergic receptors α1, α2, β1, β2, β3

44
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If you want to prevent urination, what SNS receptor would you activate and what PNS receptor would you inhibit?

Activate α1 for sphincter contraction; activate β1 to reduce bladder contraction; inhibit muscarinic receptors

45
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If you want to promote urination, what PNS receptor would you activate and what SNS receptor would you inhibit?

Activate muscarinic receptors; inhibit α1 for sphincter relaxation; inhibit β1 to remove inhibition of bladder contraction

46
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If you want to promote mydriasis, what SNS receptor would you activate and what PNS receptor would you inhibit?

Activate α1; inhibit muscarinic receptors

47
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If you want to promote miosis, what PNS receptor would you activate and what SNS receptor would you inhibit?

Activate muscarinic receptors; inhibit α1

48
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What is the MOA and indication for phenylpropanolamine?

α1 and β1 agonist; promotes urine retention

49
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What is the MOA and indication for oxybutynin?

Muscarinic antagonist; promotes urine retention

50
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What is the MOA and indication for prazosin?

α1 antagonist; promotes urination

51
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What is the MOA and indication for tamsulosin?

Selective α1 antagonist; promotes urination; treats urethrospasm

52
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What is the MOA and indication for phenoxybenzamine?

Irreversible α1 antagonist; treats hypertension from pheochromocytoma

53
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What is the MOA and indication for bethanecol?

Muscarinic agonist; promotes urination

54
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What is the MOA and indication for tropicamide?

Muscarinic antagonist; causes mydriasis for ocular exams

55
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What is the MOA and indication for atropine?

Muscarinic antagonist; causes mydriasis; improves comfort in uveitis; prevents posterior synechia; treats AChE inhibitor toxicity

56
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What is the MOA and indication for phenylephrine?

α1 agonist; causes mydriasis

57
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What is the MOA and indication for pilocarpine?

Muscarinic agonist; causes miosis; treats glaucoma and lens instability

58
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What is the MOA and indication for demecarium bromide?

Muscarinic agonist; causes miosis; treats glaucoma and lens instability

59
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What is the MOA and indication for succinylcholine?

nAChR activator not degraded by AChE; causes flaccid paralysis; used in equine castration and wildlife euthanasia

60
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What is the mechanistic goal of drugs addressing CHF?

Increase intra-myocytic calcium to improve contractility

61
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What is the MOA of digoxin?

Inhibits Na/K ATPase; increases intracellular Na; Na/Ca exchanger increases intracellular Ca

62
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What is the MOA of dopamine in CHF?

D1 receptor agonist; activates adenylyl cyclase; increases cAMP; increases Ca

63
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What is the MOA of dobutamine?

β1 receptor agonist; activates adenylyl cyclase; increases cAMP; increases Ca

64
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What is the MOA of amrinone?

PDE3 inhibitor; increases cAMP; increases intracellular Ca

65
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What is the MOA of pimobendan?

PDE3 inhibitor and calcium sensitizer; binds troponin C to increase Ca affinity

66
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Which anti-CHF drug is also a vasodilator?

Pimobendan (inodilator); opens K channels in vascular smooth muscle

67
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Which anti-CHF drug is more likely to cause toxicity in hypokalemic patients?

Digoxin

68
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What is the common toxicity for all anti-CHF drugs?

Arrhythmias

69
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Which two drugs address ventricular ectopic beats and what is their MOA?

Verapamil and diltiazem; voltage-gated Ca channel blockers

70
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Which anti-arrhythmic drug can cause corneal deposits and what is its MOA?

Amiodarone; complex mechanism including K and Ca channel blockade

71
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Which two anti-arrhythmic drugs selectively bind refractory sodium channels?

Lidocaine; mexiletine

72
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What is the preferred long-term oral drug for V-tach and V-arrhythmias and what is its MOA?

Procainamide; class I Na channel blocker with moderate association/dissociation

73
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A cat with hyperthyroidism-mediated arrhythmia should be given which drug and what is its MOA?

Propranolol; β1 antagonist

74
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A cat with hyperthyroidism-mediated hypertension should receive which drug and what is its MOA?

Amlodipine; calcium channel blocker; frontline monotherapy in cats

75
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What is the MOA of hydralazine and why is it only for emergencies?

Inhibits Ca release from SR; increases NO sensitivity; opens K channels causing vasodilation; causes severe hypotension activating baroreflex

76
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What is the other emergency antihypertensive drug and its MOA?

Sodium nitroprusside; donates NO causing NANC vasodilation and hypotension

77
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How does telmisartan address hypertension?

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist; increases NO; causes vasodilation

78
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Name two ACE inhibitors and their mechanism in hypertension.

Enalapril; benazepril; prevent AGI → AGII conversion leading to vasodilation

79
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How do ACE inhibitors assist anti-CHF drugs?

Reduce fluid load and workload on heart

80
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What drug treats pulmonary hypertension and what is its MOA?

Sildenafil; PDE5 inhibitor in vascular smooth muscle

81
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What is the mainstay drug for cardiac resuscitation?

Epinephrine (adrenaline)

82
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What are the three main physiologic facets that control airway tone?

Parasympathetic system causes baseline bronchoconstriction; sympathetic system causes bronchodilation via β2; NANC system causes bronchodilation via nitric oxide

83
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How can airway tone be pharmacologically manipulated to cause bronchodilation?

Block parasympathetic system with anticholinergics; stimulate sympathetic system with β receptor agonists

84
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What are the types, names, and selectivities of β-agonists that cause bronchodilation?

Nonselective β agonists: epinephrine, isoproterenol, ephedrine; Selective β2 agonists: terbutaline, albuterol, clenbuterol

85
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What methylxanthines cause bronchodilation and how do they work?

Theophylline and aminophylline; PDE inhibition increases cAMP causing bronchodilation

86
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What are the issues with clenbuterol in horses and cattle?

Horses: muscle tremors, sweating, tachycardia; high doses activate β1; Cattle: banned feed additive due to repartitioning effects

87
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What are the issues with zilpaterol in horses and cattle?

Horses: highly toxic; Cattle: approved but voluntarily withdrawn due to health concerns

88
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Which anticholinergics cause bronchodilation?

Atropine; ipratropium; glycopyrrolate

89
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What are expectorants?

Increase fluidity of respiratory secretions making them easier to cough out; examples: potassium iodide, ambroxol, guaifenesin

90
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What are peripheral antitussives?

Relieve irritation often via bronchodilation; example: ephedrine

91
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What are central antitussives?

Depress cough center in brain; narcotics: codeine, hydrocodone, butorphanol; non-narcotic: dextromethorphan

92
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What is the action of doxapram?

Respiratory stimulant activating carotid body chemoreceptors to stimulate brainstem respiratory center

93
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What are the uses of doxapram?

Stimulate respiration peri-surgically; reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression

94
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What is the action of thioredoxin?

Protein disulfide reductase; breaks inflammatory proteins on mucosa; activates β-defensins for antimicrobial effects

95
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What is the use of thioredoxin?

Potential nebulized treatment for respiratory infections such as BRD

96
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Which antibiotics are good for BRD metaphylaxis?

Tulathromycin; gamithromycin; tildipirosin; tilmicosin

97
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Which antibiotics are good for BRD treatment?

Florfenicol; ceftiofur; enrofloxacin; danofloxacin

98
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Which antibiotic is good for dairy cattle, swine, and equine respiratory disease?

Ceftiofur

99
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Which antibiotics are good for dogs and cats with respiratory infections?

Amoxicillin with clavulanate

100
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When are diuretic drugs used?

To promote diuresis and reduce circulating volume; commonly used to treat CHF and edema