GENETICS EXAM #2: Immunogenetics, GENETIC EXAM #2: Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome, GENETICS EXAM #2: Inborn Errors of Metabolism, GENETICS EXAM #2: Developmental Genetics

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150 Terms

1
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What are the main contributors to cellular immunity?

T regulatory cells, cytotoxic T cells, and memory T cells

2
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What are the main contributors to humoral immunity?

Memory B cells and plasma cells

3
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Which type of immunity is absolutely essential in fighting off bacteria?

Humoral

4
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In addition to the MHC molecule and foreign peptide, humoral immunity requires _______________________ molecules.

Costimulatory

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Which part of the antibody binds to the antigen?

Variable region

6
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The constant region of the antibody is constant among...

Classes

Ex: all IgG have the same constant region

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What holds antibodies together?

Disulfide bonds

8
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What is the variable region of the antibody made up of?

Heavy and light chains

9
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What are the four parts of the T cell receptor?

Variable region

Constant region

Joining region

Diversity region

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The constant region of the T cell receptor is plugged into the _______________.

Bilayer

11
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True or False: The way in which an antigen peptide is presented can vary from person to person depending on the way MHC binds the antigen

True

Ex: In the picture, MHC binds triangle and circle and presents square. But in another person, it might bind triangle and square and present circle.

<p>True</p><p>Ex: In the picture, MHC binds triangle and circle and presents square. But in another person, it might bind triangle and square and present circle.</p>
12
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Why don't T cells respond to self MHC + self Ag?

No costimulatory molecules

13
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Which MHC alerts CD8+ T cells in the case of a viral infection?

MHC I

14
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What is the key factor in determining tissue matching for transplant donors and recipients?

MHC

15
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MHC molecules have a ______________ (broad, narrow) specificity for peptides, meaning many different antigens can bind within the ______________ (same, different) binding cleft.

Broad; same

16
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Peptides associated with MHC have a ______________ (slow, fast) on and off rate

Slow

17
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True or False: MHC molecules discriminate from self and foreign peptides

False; they do NOT discriminate, they only recognize amino acid sequences

18
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The MHC _____________________ of an individual determines which peptides bind and how peptides bind.

Haplotype

19
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MHC was originally only linked to ________________________ but was later found to be critically important to all _________________________________________________.

Graft rejection; immune responses involving protein antigens

20
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MHC is also known as...

HLA (human leukocyte antigen)

21
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MHC genes are highly...

Polymorphic

They are actually the most polymorphic genes in the human genome

22
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MHC alleles are _______________________ expressed.

Codominantly

Both maternal and paternal MHC genes are expresed in offspring (haplotype)

<p>Codominantly</p><p>Both maternal and paternal MHC genes are expresed in offspring (haplotype)</p>
23
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What can MHC haplotype influence?

- How an individual responds to certain pathogens

- Susceptibility to certain diseases

- Transplant success

24
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______________________ diseases are often associated with HLA.

Autoimmune

<p>Autoimmune</p>
25
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True or False: It is possible to see a complete deficiency in macrophages

False; you will NEVER see a complete deficiency in macrophages (it is incompatible with life), but you can see it with lymphocytes

26
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Describe primary or congenital immunodeficiencies

- Genetic defects that result in increased susceptibility to infection

- Frequently manifested in infancy and childhood

- Affect about 1 in 500 people in the US

27
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Describe secondary or acquired immunodeficiencies

Develop as a consequence of:

- Malnutrition (alcoholics)

- Disseminated cancer

- Treatment with immunosuppressive drugs (steroids)

- Infection of cells of the immune system (HIV)

28
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Any loss-of-function mutation affecting a ____________________________ has negative consequences for survival.

Toll-like receptor (TLR)

29
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How might immunodeficiencies result?

- Defects in ___________

- Defects in ____________

- Defects in leukocyte maturation or activation

- Defects in effector mechanisms of innate or adaptive immunity

30
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What can help predict the type of immunodeficiency?

The type of recurring infection a patient experiences

31
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Deficient ______________________________ usually results in increased susceptibility to infection by pyogenic bacteria.

Humoral immunity

32
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What was the first primary immunodeficiency disease to be described?

Bruton (X-linked) agammaglobulinemia (XLA)

33
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<p>Describe XLA </p>

Describe XLA

- All antibody isotypes are very low

- Circulating B cells are usually absent

- Pre-B cells are present in reduced numbers in the bone marrow

- Tonsils are usually very small and lymph nodes are rarely palpable due to absence of germinal centers

34
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True or False: In XLA, the thymus and other T cell dependent areas of spleen and lymph nodes are normal

True

35
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Why do most boys with XLA not show symptoms for the first 6-9 months of life?

The presence of maternally transmitted IgG antibodies

36
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Loss of function of Bruton Tyrosine Kinase

Important in pre-B cell expansion and maturation into Ig-expressing B cells

what defect does this describe?

XLA

<p>XLA</p>
37
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  • Very low serum IgG, IgA, and IgE

  • Elevated concentration of polyclonal IgM

  • Recurrent pyogenic infections within the first ot second year of life (otitis media, sinusitis, pneumonia, tonsillitis)

this describes which immunodeficiency?

X-linked immunodeficiency with hyper-IgM

<p> X-linked immunodeficiency with hyper-IgM </p><p></p><p></p>
38
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In contrast to patients with XLA, hyper-IgM patients have _________________________________.

Lymphoid hyperplasia

39
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What is the defect in X-linked immunodeficiency with hyper-IgM?

Loss of function of CD40 ligand (CD154) that is expressed on helper T cells

Prevents the T cell from co-stimulating antigen-specific B cells

<p>Loss of function of CD40 ligand (CD154) that is expressed on helper T cells</p><p>Prevents the T cell from co-stimulating antigen-specific B cells</p>
40
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In hyper-IgM, B cells are not signaled to go through ________________________ and therefore only produce IgM.

Isotope switching

<p>Isotope switching</p>
41
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What is the treatment for XLA or hyper-IgM?

Prophylactic antibiotics and/or gamma-globulin therapy

42
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Deficient ______________________________ usually results in increased susceptibility to viruses and other intracellular pathogens.

Cell-mediated immunity

43
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True or False: There are many treatments for deficient T cell responses

What is the survival rate for T-cell defects?

False; it is rare that patients with absolute defects in T-cell function survive beyond infancy or childhood

44
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<p>What is DiGeorge's syndrome?</p><p></p>

What is DiGeorge's syndrome?

Developmentally-related disease associated with tissue morphogenesis

Thymus never develops (along with many other important structures and vasculature)

45
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In DiGeorge's syndrome, the percentage of T cells is variable ____________________ (increased, decreased), resulting in a relative _____________________ (increase, decrease) in percentage of B cells.

Decreased; increase

46
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There are clinical similarities between DiGeorge's syndrome and __________________________________.

Fetal alcohol syndrome

47
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What is X-linked Recessive Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (XSCID)?

What is the fundamental problem with the T cells making them self-delete?

Rare, fatal syndrome characterized by profound deficiencies of T- and B-cell function

T cells can be made but receptors are nonfunctional, so they get deleted, and B cells cannot be helped

48
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Patients with XSCID have persistent infections with ________________________ organisms.

Opportunistic (candida albicans, pneumocystis carinii, varicella, measles, parainfluenzae, cytomegalovirus, and EBV)

49
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Patients with XSCID are at risk for ______________ as a result of maternal T cells that cross into fetal circulation.

GVHD; they lack the ability to reject foreign material

50
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XSCID patients have few or no __________________ cells and elevated ____ cells.

T and NK; B

51
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Why don't the B cells in XSCID patients produce immunoglobulin normally?

No T cell help; function is not helped even after T-cell reconstitution of bone marrow

52
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_____________________________ is currently the treatment of choice for various immunodeficiency diseases.

Bone marrow transplantation

53
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What type of immunodeficiency disorder is Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome Classified?

X-linked primary immunodeficiency disease

54
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<p>What symptoms are typically present in patients with Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome at diagnosis?</p><p></p><p></p>

What symptoms are typically present in patients with Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome at diagnosis?

Recurrent infections, eczema, microthrombocytopenia

55
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<p>What finding is pathognomonic for WAS?</p><p></p>

What finding is pathognomonic for WAS?

small platelets in the context of thrombocytopenia

56
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What is the gold standard in the diagnosis of WAS?

Genetic analysis

57
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What treatments are indicated for patients with confirmed WAS?

hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) or stem cell gene therapy (GT)

58
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Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a disorder of _________________________ metabolism that results in a build up of _________________________ and deficiency of __________________________.

Amino acid; phenylalanine; tyrosine

59
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True or False: Children with PKU present with symptoms acutely

False; it is an insidious disease

60
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What is the first disorder screened for at birth?

PKU

61
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- Musty odor

- Light features (complexion, hair, eyes)

- Eczema

- Early on: ID

- Later on: psychiatric/behavioral issues

Clinical features of PKU

62
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Lack of proper dietary therapy during pregnancy resulting in infant's microcephaly, mental retardation, growth retardation and congenital heart defects

maternal PKU

63
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<p>Galactosemia is a disorder of ____ metabolism. </p>

Galactosemia is a disorder of ____ metabolism.

Carbohydrate

64
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What is gastrulation?

Rearrangement of the single layer into trilaminar structure

- Ectoderm

- Mesoderm

- Endoderm

65
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What is the key feature of gastrulation? When does it form?

Primitive streak; 14-28 days

66
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What is neurulation?

- Folding process that turns the neural plate into the neural tube

- Separation of the ectoderm into neural tube, epidermis, and neural crest cells

67
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Closure of the neural tube occurs at _____ different sites.

5; it doesn't just zip up, which helps to explain spina bifida

68
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What are the components of the mesoderm?

Notochord, dorsal mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral mesoderm, and head mesenchyme

69
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What does the notochord form?

Neural tube and body axis

70
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What does the dorsal mesoderm form?

Axial skeleton, skeletal muscle, and connective tissue

71
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What does the intermediate mesoderm form?

Kidneys and GU

72
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What does the lateral mesoderm form?

Heart, viscera, and body wall

73
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What does the head mesenchyme form?

Eyes and head muscles

74
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Because there are many genes active during this time, errors in _______________________ are likely culprits of birth defects.

Gastrulation

75
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What does the endoderm form?

Lining of digestive tract, lining of respiratory tree, and lining of middle ear, thymus, parathyroids, and thyroid

76
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The primitive streak creates the ___________________________________ axis.

Anterior/posterior

77
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___________________ expression initiates and maintains the primitive streak.

Nodal

78
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________ genes are key for positioning of cells and tissues.

Hox

79
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Mutations in Hox genes can cause abnormalities of ___________ function.

Limb

80
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What are the other axes?

Ventral/dorsal, medial/lateral, left/right

81
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Proper internal organ development relies on the ______________ axis.

Left/right

82
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What is situs solitus?

Normal position of thoracic and abdominal organs

83
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What is situs inversus?

Left-right reversal of organ placement

84
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What is situs ambiguous? Which organs does it affect the most?

Describes anatomy that falls in between situs solitus and situs inversus (kind of like a mirror image)

Affects the heart and spleen the most

85
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True or False: There is significant overlap between brain and skull structure development

True

86
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Which gene directs craniofacial development?

HOX genes

- Directs function and movement of the cells

- Precursors to muscles and bones of the head and neck

87
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Prevalence of limb defects are second to only what?

Heart defects

88
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Limb development is _____________ and involves multiple _____________.

Complex; axes

89
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The limb is derived primarily from the ___________________ and consists of ___________________ and _________________ plates.

Mesoderm; somitic and lateral

90
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What is the first step of limb development?

Induction of fore- and hind-limbs

91
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What influences progression of the limb?

Apical ectodermal ridge

- Stimulates proliferation of mesodermal cells

92
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What specifies anterior/posterior information in limb development? What is this key for?

Zone of polarizing activity

- Key for thumb-finger differentiation

93
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Holt-Oram Syndrome

Hereditary syndrome of malformations of the heart and upper extremities

- Often more severe in left than right

- Sloping shoulders and restricted movement at the joint

- Congenital heart disease and cardiac conduction disease (heart block w/ or w/o afib)

94
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Cells with a common function become...

Tissues

95
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Organogenesis can only happen once...

Axes are established

96
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When do organs form?

When common cells and tissues collaborate for a unified function; signal exchange between tissues promote growth and differentiation

97
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Skeletal formation is dependent upon _______________________.

Osteoblasts

98
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Cleidocranial dysostosis

Defects of the skull and clavicle due to imperfect ossification

- Open fontanelle

- Hypertelorism (wide set eyes)

- Absent clavicles

99
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What is ectopic expression?

Expression of a gene in a place or at a time where/when the gene is not normally expressed

100
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What is a malformation?

Defects due to intrinsically abnormal development

- 3-5% of newborns

- 1% of newborns have multiple malformations (usually indicates a syndrome or cause)

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