J - Abdomen

1. Vagina m. recti abdominis is formed by the aponeuroses of the anterolateral muscles of the abdominal wall.

Yes

2. The spleen is located in the infracolic compartment.

No

3. The fluid in the peritoneal cavity lubricates surfaces and facilitates the movement of viscera.

Yes

4. All of the extraperitoneal viscera are surrounded by visceral peritoneum.

No

5. The peritoneum forms the largest of the serous sacs in the body.

Yes

6. The peritoneal cavity is a slit-like internal between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum.

Yes

7. There are supracolic and infracolic compartments because of the presence of the transverse colon in the flap.

Yes

8. Epiploic foramen of the omental bursa (lesser sac) opens into its left part.

No

9. Bursa omentalis is a peritoneal space in the supracolic compartment.

Yes

10. Nerve supply of the anterolateral abdominal wall is ensured only by the lower intercostal nerves.

No

11. Portal vein lies in front of hepatic artery.

No

12. Common bile duct is posterior to the portal vein.

No

13. The portal vein is formed behind the neck of the pancreas.

Yes

14. The portal vein is formed by the union of splenic and inferior mesenteric veins.

No

15. The portal vein ascends in the greater omentum.

No

the portal vein ascends in the lesser omentum

16. The liver lies mainly in the right hypochondrium.

Yes

17. The lesser omentum is attached to the fissure for ligamentum venosum.

Yes

18. The liver is divided functionally into 8 segments.

Yes

19. The left hepatic duct drains the left lobe.

Yes

20. The right hepatic duct drains the quadrate lobe.

No

21. Omental bursa (lesser sac):

A. is part of the retroperitoneal compartment

B. is in the infracolic compartment

C. is in the supracolic compartment

D. has no communication with peritoneal cavity (greater sac)

C. is in the supracolic compartment

22. The peritoneum:

A. is a double-layered mucous membrane

B. is a double-layered serous membrane

C. covers entirely all the organs in the abdominal cavity

B. is a double-layered serous membrane

23. The inferior border of the rectus sheath posteriorly is called the:

A. Falx inguinalis

B. Inguinal lig ament

C. Internal inguinal ring

D. Arcuate line

E. Linea alba

D. Arcuate line

24. An obstetrician decides to do a Caesarean section on a 25-year-old pregnant woman. A transverse suprapubic incision is chosen for that purpose. All of the following abdominal wall layers will be encountered during the incision EXCEPT the:

A. Anterior rectus sheath

B. Posterior rectus sheath

C. Rectus abdominis muscle

D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue

E. Transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum

B. Posterior rectus sheath

transverse suprapubic incision > also called Pfannenstiel incision is made below the arcuate line

25. The internal thoracic artery is sometimes surgically cut near the caudal end of the sternum and used to supply blood to a region of the heart. In these cases, maintenance of adequate blood flow to the rectus abdominis may be dependent on increased flow through which artery?

A. Superficial epigastric

B. Inferior epigastric

C. Umbilical

D. Superficial circumflex iliac

E. Deep circumflex iliac

B. Inferior epigastric

If internal thoracic artery was ligated, blood would no longer flow to the superior epigastric artery, that is the branch of the internal thoracic that supplies blood to rectus abdominis

26. If one were to make an incision parallel to and 5 cm above the inguinal ligament, one would find the inferior epigastric vessels between which layers of the abdominal wall?

A. Camper's and Scarpa's fascias

B. External abdominal oblique and internal abdominal oblique muscles

C. Internal abdominal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles

D. Skin and deep fascia of the abdominal wall

E. Tranversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum

E. Tranversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum

inferior epigastric vessels lay on > inner surface of transversus abdominis and covered by parietal peritoneum

27. A loop of bowel protrudes through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia; viewed from the abdominal side, the hernial sac would be found in which region?

A. Deep inguinal ring

B. Lateral inguinal fossa

C. Medial inguinal fossa

D. Superficial inguinal ring

E. Supravesical fossa

C. Medial inguinal fossa

direct inguinal hernia passes through weak fascia in the medial inguinal fossa

28. Which structure passes through the deep inguinal ring?

A. Iliohypogastric nerve

B. Ilioinguinal nerve

C. Inferior epigastric artery

D. Medial umbilical ligament

E. Round ligament of the uterus

E. Round ligament of the uterus

! The round ligament of the uterus passes through the deep inguinal ring and runs through the inguinal canal

29. During your presentation of the inguinal region dissection, you would indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring to be:

A. Above the anterior superior iliac spine

B. Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

C. Above the pubic tubercle

D. In the supravesical fossa

E. Medial to the inferior epigastric artery

B. Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

! location of deep inguinal ring : near midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine.

30. The normal pattern of venous and lymphatic drainage of the superficial tissues of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane. Above that plane, drainage is in a cranial direction; below the plane drainage is in a caudal direction. This reference plane corresponds to:

A. Transpyloric plane

B. Level of anterior superior iliac spines

C. Transtubercular line

D. Level of arcuate line

E. Level of umbilicus

E. Level of umbilicus

! umbilicus is an important landmark for venous and lymphatic drainage of the abdominal wall

31. The boundaries of the inguinal triangle include all except:

A. Arcuate line

B. Inferior epigastric vessels

C. Inguinal ligament

D. Lateral border of rectus abdominus muscle

A. Arcuate line

! inguinal triangle = site for direct inguinal hernias

! boundaries :

medially: lateral border of rectus abdominus

inferiorly: inguinal ligament

superiorly:inferior epigastric artery

32. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

A. External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

B. Falx inguinalis

C. Internal abdominal oblique muscle

D. Scarpa's fascia

E. Transversalis fascia

A. External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

33. If a hernia enters into the scrotum, it is most likely a(n):

A. Direct inguinal hernia

B. Indirect inguinal hernia

C. Femoral hernia

D. Obturator hernia

B. Indirect inguinal hernia

! Indirect inguinal hernias cross through the deep inguinal ring, passing deep to the internal spermatic fascia. This means that they can enter the scrotum

34. Which nerve passes through the superficial inguinal ring and may therefore be endangered during inguinal hernia repair?

A. Femoral branch of the genitofemoral

B. Ilioinguinal

C. Iliohypogastric

D. Obturator

E. Subcostal

B. Ilioinguinal

The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal from the side instead of passing through deep ing. ring

35. Occlusion/ Okklusion - Verschluss ( the blockage or closing of a blood vessel or hollow organ)

... of the inferior mesenteric artery is seldom/selten symptomatic because its territory may be supplied by branches of the:

A. Gastroduodenal

B. Ileocolic

C. Middle colic

D. Right colic

E. Splenic

C. Middle colic

! The middle colic artery is the branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the transverse colon

36. The presence of which feature (also obvious on a radiograph with barium contrast) distinguishes small from large bowel?

A. Circular folds of the mucosa

B. Circular smooth muscle layer in the wall

C. Mucosal glands

D. Longitudinal smooth muscle layer in the wall

E. Serosa

A. Circular folds of the mucosa

! The small intestine features circular folds of tissue that are covered with villi

37. Which of the following veins does NOT run a course parallel to the artery of the same name?

A. superior epigastric

B. superficial circumflex iliac

C. inferior mesenteric

D. superior rectal

E. ileocolic

C. inferior mesenteric

! The inferior mesenteric vein and inferior mesenteric artery do not run in tandem

38. During development of the gut:

A. the sigmoid colon is retroperitoneal

B. the inferior mesenteric artery is the axis for rotation of the midgut loop

C. the stomach rotates around its longitudinal axis causing the ventral border to become the greater curvature

D. the liver is non-functional

E. none of the above

E. none of the above

! - None of the statements about development are correct

! - During development, structures that are peritonealized become retroperitoneal when they are pressed against the body wall and stay there. Structures do not start out retroperitoneal and become peritonealized later. Since the sigmoid colon is peritonealized in the adult, it has not and will not ever be retroperitoneal. The superior mesenteric artery is the axis for rotation of the midgut loop. This should make sense, since the SMA supplies the midgut. When the stomach rotates, the ventral border becomes the lesser curvature.

39. Visceral pain is often referred to a site on the body wall (where the patient ' feels" it) that is innervated by the same spinal cord segment that innervates the visceral organ involved. Pain of appendicitis is often first felt around the umbilicus, indicating that the appendix receives its sympathetic (and thus visceral afferents) from which spinal cord segment?

A. T9

B. T 10

C. T 11

D. T 12

E. L 1

B. T 10

!!! Sensation from around the umbilicus is mediated by T 10

40. The spleen normally does not descend below the costal margin. However, it pushes downward and medially when pathologically enlarged. What structure limits the straight vertical downward movement?

A. Left colic flexure

B. Left suprarenal gland

C. Ligament of Treitz

D. Pancreas

E. Stomach

A. Left colic flexure, also called splenic flexure

splenic flexure : point where the colon takes a sharp downward turn, this is where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins

41. As the bowel is exposed, the surgeon says in amazement, "This is a loop of large bowel!" Which characteristic(s) would identify it specifically as large bowel?

A. A serosa

B. Circular folds

C. Epiploic appendages

D. Tenia

E. C and D

E. C and D

3 features important for distinguishment :

1. large does not have continuous long. muscle layer instead has 3 strips of long. m of Tania coli

2. large intestine covered with mental appendages ( fat filled pendants of peritoneum

3. large intestine is folded into sacculations / HAUSTRA

42. The anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is called the:

A. Arcade

B. Arteriae rectae

C. Coronary

D. Ileocolic

E. Marginal

E. Marginal

- runs around border of the large intestine, & formed by anastomosis of branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery, and sigmoid artery.

43. The inferior mesenteric artery is often occluded/verschlossen by atherosclerosis without symptoms; its normal area of distribution therefore must be supplied by collateral blood flow between which arteries?

A. lleocolic and right colic

B. Left and middle colic

C. Left colic and sigmoidal

D. Right and middle colic

E. Sigmoidal and superior rectal

B. Left and middle colic

44. The artery of the midgut is the:

A. Celiac trunk

B. Inferior mesenteric

C. Proper hepatic

D. Splenic

E. Superior mesenteric

E. Superior mesenteric

superior mesenteric artery is the artery of the midgut

45. During a full workup on a 2-month-old infant with a history of intermittent gastrointestinal pain and vomiting, physicians discovered that the cause was lack of emptying of the stomach. They immediately suspected that the cause was a spasmodic contraction of which of the following parts of the stomach?

A. cardiac notch

B. fundus

C. lesser curvature

D. pylorus

E. rugae

D. pylorus

Pyloricstenosis is a congenital disorder where PYLORUS is thickened causing obstruction of the gastric outlet to the duodenum

46. In order to do a vagotomy (section of vagal nerve trunks) to reduce the secretion of acid by cells of the stomach mucosa in patients with peptic ulcers, one needs to cut the gastric branches and retain vagal innervation to other abdominal organs. Where would a surgeon look for these branches in relation to the stomach?

A. along the gastroepiploic vessels

B. along the greater curvature

C. along the lesser curvature

D. in the base of the omental apron

E. in the gastrocolic ligament

C. along the lesser curvature

vagal branches to the stomach are found on the lesser curvature

47. While performing a splenectomy (removal of the spleen) following an automobile accident, the surgeons were especially attentive to locate and preserve the tail of the pancreas which is closely associated with the spleen. This they found in the:

A. gastrocolic ligament

B. gastrosplenic ligament

C . phrenicocolic ligament

D. splenorenal ligament

E. transverse mesocolon

D. splenorenal ligament

! splenorenal ligament is the peritoneal structure that connects the spleen to the posterior abdominal wall over the left kidney

48. A 21Y old woman was broad-sided on the driver side by an SUV and was taken to the hospital emergency room. Examination showed low blood pressure and tenderness on the left mid-axillary line. Also, a large swelling was felt protruding downward and medially below the left costal margin. X-rays revealed that her 9th and 10th ribs were fractured near their angles on the left side. The abdominal organ most likely to be injured by the fracture is:

A. Descending colon

B. Left kidney

C. Pancreas

D. Spleen

E. Stomach

D. Spleen

49. You are observing an operation to remove the left suprarenal gland. To expose the gland the surgeon mobilizes the descending colon by cutting along its lateral attachment to the body wall and dissecting medialward in the fusion fascia behind it. Suddenly the operative field is filled with blood. The surgeon realizes he has failed to cut a mesenteric attachment between the

left colic flexure and another organ. As a result of the traction, the surface of the organ tore. Which organ was injured?

A. Duodenum

B. Kidney

C. Liver

D. Spleen

E. Suprarenal gland

D. Spleen

left colic flexure also called splenic flexure

50. A patient presented with a swollen spleen, which protruded medially toward the umbilicus in the abdomen. A vertical and downward expansion of the spleen was resisted by the:

A. Tail of the pancreas

B. Left colic flexure

C. Left kidney

D. Left renal artery

E. Stomach

B. Left colic flexure

51. The spleen contacts all of the following organs EXCEPT:

A. Jejunum

B. Kidney

C. Left colic flexure

D. Tail of the pancreas

E. Stomach

A. Jejunum

spleen is not in contact with the jejunum.

52. Which is not a boundary of the epiploic (omental) foramen?

A. Aorta

B. Caudate lobe of the liver

C. First part of the duodenum

D. Hepatoduodenal ligament

A. Aorta

The epiploic (omental) foramen is a passageway between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac.

53. Which of the following is NOT in contact with the spleen?

A. Colon

B. Diaphragm

C. Duodenum

D. Pancreas

E. Stomach

C. Duodenum

54. The celiac trunk supplies oxygenated blood to the following elements:

A. The large intestine

B. The kidneys

C. The liver

D. The entire small intestine

E. The entire duodenum

C. The liver

celiac trunk supplies oxygenated blood to liver

55. The fundus of the stomach receives its arterial supply from the:

A. Common hepatic

B. Inferior phrenic

C. Left gastroepiploic

D. Right gastric

E. Splenic

E. Splenic

As it enters the hilum of the spleen, the splenic artery gives off short

gastric arteries which supply blood to the fundus of the stomach

56. Which of the following structures does not lie at least partially in the retroperitoneum?

A. adrenal gland

B. duodenum

C. kidney

D. pancreas

E. spleen

E. spleen

spleen is covered entirely by visceral peritoneum and NOT by retroperitoneum

57. Which organ becomes retroperitoneal during rotation of the gut tube?

A. Duodenum

B. Kidney

C. Spleen

D. Stomach

E. Transverse Colon

A. Duodenum

58. Regarding the 2nd portion of the duodenum, all are correct EXCEPT:

A. It is crossed by the transverse colon.

B. It is thin walled and circular folds are absent in its interior.

C. It has the opening for the common bile duct and pancreatic duct on its posteromedial wa11.

D. It is secondarily retroperitoneal.

E. It is supplied by both the gastroduodenal and superior mesenteric arteries

except :this is wrong

B. It is thin walled and circular folds are absent in its interior.

The first part of the duodenum features thin walls and no circular folds (ampulla), once the duodenum turns and becomes the second part, the walls become thicker, and circular folds develop

59. A Kocher manuever dissects in the avascular plane behind which organ that becomes retroperitoneal during rotation of the gut?

A. Duodenum

B. Kidney

C. Spleen

D. Suprarenal gland

E. Transverse colon

A. Duodenum

Kocher maneuver involves reflecting the duodenum and pancreas medially

60. The celiac plexus of nerves may contain fibers derived from all of the following sources EXCEPT:

A. posterior vagal trunk

B. greater thoracic splanchnic nerve

C. lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve

D. lumbar splanchnic nerves

C. lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve

61. Which statement regarding the suprarenal glands is correct?

A. Its entire arterial supply is directly from the abdominal aorta.

B. Veins from both glands drain directly into the inferior vena cava.

C. The glands are localized in the pararenal space.

D. Cells that secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine are innervated by preganglionic fibers from the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve.

D. Cells that secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine are innervated by preganglionic fibers from the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve.

62. The nerve that innervates the cells of the suprarenal medulla consists of fibers of the:

A. Greater thoracic splanchnic nerve

B. Lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve

C. Least thoracic splanchnic nerve

D. Anterior vagal trunk

E. Posterior vagal trunk

A. Greater thoracic splanchnic nerve

63. The nerves that end on the secretory cells of the medulla of the suprarenal glands are principally:

A. Preganglionic fibers from the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve

B. Postganglionic fibers from the celiac plexus

C. Postganglionic fibers from the aorticorenal ganglia

D. Preganglionic fibers from the lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve

E. Postganglionic fibers from the renal plexus

A. Preganglionic fibers from the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve

64. With one exception, preganglionic sympathetic axons synapse upon postganglionic sympathetic dendrites or cell bodies. The exception to this general rule occurs within the:

A. Kidney cortex

B. Kidney medulla

C. Suprarenal medulla

D. Suprarenal cortex

C. Suprarenal medulla

65. The pararenal fat in the kidney bed is an elaboration of:

A. Peritoneum

B. Extraperitoneal connective tissue

C. Transversalis fascia

D. Fusion fascia

B. Extraperitoneal connective tissue

TF

66. Which of the following are superficial abdominal regions?

A. Regio umbilicalis

B. Regio infraclavicularis

C. Regio inguinalis

D. Regio lumbalis

E. Regio hypochondriaca

A. Regio umbilicalis

C. Regio inguinalis

E. Regio hypochondriaca

TF

67. The transversus abdominis muscle

A. forms part of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal

B. has an attachment to the outer surface of the lower six ribs

C. forms part of the anterior layer of the rectus sheath above the pubis

D. interdigitates with the fibres of the latissimus dorsi muscle

E. contracts on deep expiration.

The transversus abdominis muscle

C. forms part of the anterior layer of the rectus sheath above the pubis

E. contracts on deep expiration.

TF

68. The external oblique muscle

A. is attached posteriorly to the thoracolumbar (lumbar) fascia

B. has an aponeurosis which splits to enclose the rectus abdominis muscle

C. forms the inguinal ligament

D. takes part in the formation of only the medial half of the anterior wall of the inguinal canal

E. contracts on coughing

The external oblique muscle

C. forms the inguinal ligament

E. contracts on coughing

TF

69. The inguinal canal

A. is about 1.5 cm long

B. has the fascia transversalis along the whole length of its posterior wall

C. has an internal ring lying 5 cm above the middle of the inguinal ligament

D. has the lacunar ligament in the medial part of its floor

E. has the inferior epigastric artery medial to its deep ring

The inguinal canal

B. has the fascia transversalis along the whole length of its posterior wall

D. has the lacunar ligament in the medial part of its floor

E. has the inferior epigastric artery medial to its deep ring

TF

70. The internal oblique muscle

A. is attached to no more than the lateral third of the inguinal ligament

B. forms part of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal

C. is continuous with the cremasteric fascia

D. on the right side rotates the trunk at the vertebral column to the right

E. forms the posterior rectus sheath immediately above the inguinal ligament

The internal oblique muscle

B. forms part of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal

C. is continuous with the cremasteric fascia

D. on the right side rotates the trunk at the vertebral column to the right

TF

71. The inguinal ligament

A. is inferior to the deep inguinal ring

B. is the lower border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle

C. forms the floor of the inguinal canal

D. is superior to the ilioinguinal nerve

E. is attached laterally to the anterior inferior iliac spine

The inguinal ligament

A. is inferior to the deep inguinal ring

B. is the lower border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle

C. forms the floor of the inguinal canal

TF

72. The muscles of the anterior abdominal wall

A. can increase intra-abdominal pressure

B. are usually contracted during deep inspiration

C. are contracted in deep expiration

D. flex the trunk in the upright position

E. control extension of the trunk in the upright position

muscles of the anterior abdominal wall

A. can increase intra-abdominal pressure

C. are contracted in deep expiration

E. control extension of the trunk in the upright position

TF

73. The superficial inguinal ring

A. is circular in shape

B. is an opening in the external oblique aponeurosis

C. has the ilioinguinal nerve passing through it

D. lies wholly lateral to the pubic tubercle

E. has the inferior epigastric artery passing through it

superficial inguinal ring

B. is an opening in the external oblique aponeurosis

C. has the ilioinguinal nerve passing through it

TF

74. The rectos abdominis muscle

A. is surrounded by the rectus sheath along its whole length

B. is innervated by the lower five intercostal nerves

C. is a flexor of the vertebral column

D. is anterior to the epigastric arteries

E. has as many tendinous intersections below the umbilicus as above

rectus abdominis muscle

B. is innervated by the lower five intercostal nerves

C. is a flexor of the vertebral column

D. is anterior to the epigastric arteries

TF

75. The deep inguinal ring

A. is an opening in the fascia transversalis

B. has the ilioinguinal nerve passing through it

C. lies above the middle of the inguinal ligament

D. has the inferior epigastric artery passing through it

E. has the lymphatic vessels from the scrotum passing through it

deep inguinal ring

A. is an opening in the fascia transversalis

C. lies above the middle of the inguinal ligament

TF

76. Muscles of the antero-lateral abdominal wall are:

A. M. serratus anterior

B. M. latissimus dorsi

C. M. transversus abdominis

D. M. obliquus externus abdominis

E. M. rectus abdominis

antero-lateral abdominal wall muscles are :

C. M. transversus abdominis

D. M. obliquus externus abdominis

E. M. rectus abdominis

TF

77. The lesser omentum

A. lies between the liver, stomach and duodenum

B. forms part of the anterior wall of the lesser sac

C. contains the portal vein

D. contains the gastroduodenal artery

E. extends into the fissure for the ligamentum teres

lesser omentum:

A. lies between liver, stomach and duodenum

B. forms part of the ant. wall of lesser sac

C. contains the portal vein

TF

78. Which of the following doesn't belong to the infracolic compartment?

A. the gastrocolic ligament

B. the lesser omentum

C. the mesenterium

D. the gastrophrenic ligament

E. the cecum

A. the gastrocolic ligament

B. the lesser omentum

D. the gastrophrenic ligament

TF

79. The greater omentum

A. is the most noticeable part of peritoneum.

B. hangs down from the porta hepatis.

C. contains a large amount of fat.

D. covers all the organs in supracolic and infracolic compartments.

E. has been called " the abdominal policeman" because it prevents the spread of infection.

greater omentum:

A. most noticeable part of peritoneum.

C. contains a large amount of fat.

E. has been called " the abdominal policeman" because it prevents the spread of infection.

TF

80. Vv. paraumbilicales:

A. accompany the remnant of umbilical vein.

B. accompany ligamentum teres hepatis.

C. end in the left portal vein.

D. have no connection with venous drainage of the anterior abdominal wall.

E. are part of portacaval anastomosis .

paraumbilical veins:

A. accompany the remnant/Rest of umbilical vein.

B. accompany ligamentum teres hepatis.

C. end in the left portal vein.

E. are part of portocaval anastomosis

TF

81. Which of the following peritoneal structures are found in the supracolic compartment?

A. A. omentum minus

B. mesocolon sigmoideum

C. lig. falciforme hepatis

D. mesenterium

E. lig. gastrocolicum

peritoneal structures in supracolic compartment are :

A. A. omentum minus

C. lig. falciforme hepatis

E. lig. gastrocolicum

TF

82. Omentum majus

A. is in part in the supracolic compartment

B. is in part in the infracolic compartment

C. begins from the great curvature of the stomach

D. is attached to the liver

E. is attached to duodenum

Omentum majus

A. is in part in the supracolic compartment

B. is in part in the infracolic compartment

C. begins from the great curvature of the stomach

TF

83. The rectos abdominis muscle

A. is flat and broad muscle

B. has multiple bellies

C. has 3 to 4 intersections

D. has intersections fused with the anterior wall of its sheath

E. is located in aponeurotic vagina

rectos abdominis m.

B. has multiple bellies

C. has 3 to 4 intersections

D. has intersections fused with the anterior wall of its sheath

E. is located in aponeurotic vagina

TF

84. The descending (second) part of the duodenum

A. is developed entirely from the midgut

B. has the opening of the accessory pancreatic duct, if present, proximal to the opening of the main pancreatic duct

C. is anterior to the right renal vessels

D. is lateral to the right colic flexure

E. is lateral to the second lumbar vertebra

B. has the opening of the accessory pancreatic duct, if present, proximal to the opening of the main pancreatic duct

C. is anterior to the right renal vessels

E. is lateral to the second lumbar vertebra

TF

85. The(common) bile duct

A. opens into the posteromedial wall of the descending (second) part of the duodenum

B. is anterior to the superior (first) part of the duodenum

C. lies behind the head of the pancreas

D. lies to the right of the hepatic artery

E. is anterior to the epiploic foramen (aditus to the lesser sac)

A. opens into the posteromedial wall of the descending (second) part of the duodenum

C. lies behind the head of the pancreas

D. lies to the right of the hepatic artery

E. is anterior to the epiploic foramen (aditus to the lesser sac)

TF

86. The first (superior) part of the duodenum

A. has a blood supply derived from the coeliac artery

B. is posterior to the bile duct

C. has the lesser omentum attached to it

D. is posterior to the quadrate lobe of the liver

E. has no duodenal (Brunner's) glands

first (superior) part of the duodenum:

A. has a blood supply derived from the coeliac artery

C. has the lesser omentum attached to it

D. is posterior to the quadrate lobe of the liver

TF

87. The vermiform appendix

A. is retrocaecal in about 65% of subjects

B. is pelvic in about 10% of subjects

C. has a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle

D. has a nerve supply from the tenth thoracic spinal segment

E. is supplied by an artery which lies in front of the terminal part of the ileum

vermiform appendix:

A. is retrocaecal in about 65% of subjects

(32% pelvic, 2% subcecal, 0.5% preileal....)

C. has a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle

D. has a nerve supply from the tenth thoracic spinal segment

E. is supplied by an artery which lies in front of the terminal part of the ileum

TF

88. The liver

A. is in contact with the right kidney without peritoneum intervening

B. is anterior to the stomach on the left

C. receives a blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery

D. is separated from the subdiaphragmatic part of the inferior vena cava by peritoneum

E. develops from a diverticulum from the midgut

liver is:

B. anterior to the stomach on the left

TF

89. The first (superior) part of the duodenum

A. begins to the left of the midline

B. forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (aditus to the lesser sac)

C. is anterior to the bile duct

D. is posterior to the gall bladder

E. has no villi

first (superior) part of the duodenum:

B. forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (aditus to the lesser sac)

C. is anterior to the bile duct

D. is posterior to the gall bladder

TF

90. The cecum

A. has no taeniae coli

B. has a blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery

C. is usually surrounded by peritoneum

D. lies to the left of the right mesenteric sinus

E. lies in the right iliac fossa

B. has a blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery

C. is usually surrounded by peritoneum

E. lies in the right iliac fossa

TF

91. The portal vein

A. is usually formed by the union of the splenic and superior mesenteric veins

B. runs upwards behind the epiploic foramen (aditus to the lesser sac)

C. lies posterior to the (common) hepatic artery

D. is anterior to the superior (first) part of the duodenum

E. has no tributaries other than the branches forming it

A. is usually formed by the union of the splenic and superior mesenteric veins

C. lies posterior to the (common) hepatic artery

TF

92. The coeliac trunk (artery)

A. supplies the whole of the duodenum

B. arises from the aorta at the level of the second lumbar vertebra

C. gives off the right gastric artery as a direct branch

D. indirectly supplies the gall bladder

E. indirectly supplies the lower end of the esophagus

D. indirectly supplies the gall bladder

E. indirectly supplies the lower end of the esophagus

TF

93. The common hepatic artery

A. lies anterior to the portal vein in the lesser omentum

B. lies to the right of the bile duct

C. gives branches directly or indirectly to both the lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach

D. supplies the right colic (hepatic) flexure

E. is the only source of blood going to the liver

A. lies anterior to the portal vein in the lesser omentum

C. gives branches directly or indirectly to both the lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach

TF

94. V. portae

A. anastomoses with the system of superior vena cava

B. lies anteriorly to a.hepatica propria and the bile duct

C. collects blood from unpaired abdominal viscera

D. part of it is in the lesser omentum

E. part of it runs posterior to the head of pancreas

V. portae

A. anastomoses with the system of superior vena cava

C. collects blood from unpaired abdominal viscera

D. part of it is in the lesser omentum

E. part of it runs posterior to the head of pancreas

TF

95. The left kidney

A. is lower than the right

B. has a lower lateral part which is posterior to the left colic flexure

C. is crossed anteriorly by the splenic vessels

D. is separated from the body of the pancreas by the lesser sac

E. has a lower pole which lies behind the spleen

B. has a lower lateral part which is posterior to the left colic flexure

C. is crossed anteriorly by the splenic vessels

TF

96. The inferior vena cava

A. has a valve just above its formation by the union of the common iliac veins

B. is anterior to the epiploic foramen (aditus) to the lesser sac

C. lies to the right of the right phrenic nerve in the thorax

D. receives directly the right and left suprarenal veins

E. is posterior to the portal vein

E. is posterior to the portal vein

TF

97. The right renal artery

A. lies anterior to the right renal vein

B. is anterior to the inferior vena cava

C. divides into four or five branches before entering the kidney

D. gives off branches to the ureter

E. is anterior to the right crus of the diaphragm

C. divides into four or five branches before entering the kidney

D. gives off branches to the ureter

E. is anterior to the right crus of the diaphragm

TF

98. The inferior vena cava

A. leaves the abdominal cavity at the level of the eighth thoracic vertebra

B. is formed at the level of the fifth lumbar vertebra

C. receives directly the blood from the gonadal veins of both sides

D. is posterior to the right adrenal gland

E. is posterior to the right common iliac artery.

A. leaves the abdominal cavity at the level of the eighth thoracic vertebra

B. is formed at the level of the fifth lumbar vertebra

E. is posterior to the right common iliac artery.

TF

99. The descending (second) part of the duodenum

A. is posterior to the transverse colon

B. is anterior to the right kidney

C. is anterior to the left lobe of the liver

D. has a blood supply from both the coeliac artery and the superior mesenteric artery

E. has the bile duct opening into its anterolateral wall.

A. is posterior to the transverse colon

B. is anterior to the right kidney

D. has a blood supply from both the coeliac artery and the superior mesenteric artery

TF

100. The right adrenal (suprarenal) gland

A. is developed entirely from mesoderm

B. is innervated mainly by postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibres

C. has three arteries supplying it and three veins leaving it

D. is anterior to the inferior vena cava

E. is reduced to about half its size between birth and three months.

E. is reduced to about half its size between birth and three months.