Mosby 7th edition procedure challenge test

162. Beam-part-image receptor alignment is critical in providing:

a. A distortion-free image

b. Lower patient dose

c. Higher overall contrast

d. Lower spatial resolution

162. Beam-part-image receptor alignment is critical in providing:

a. A distortion-free image

b. Lower patient dose

c. Higher overall contrast

d. Lower spatial resolution

A

163. BMI can have an important impact on diagnostic imaging. What does BMI stand for?

a. Below measurable index

b. Body mass in imaging

c. Body mass index

d. Body measurement index

C

164. Which of the following anatomic structures is not demonstrated on a KUB?

a. Bone structure of the pelvis

b. Inferior ribs

c. Psoas muscles

d. Minor calyces

D

165. Radial deviation is synonymous with:

a. Radial flexion

b. Radial deviation

c. Ulnar flexion

d. Dorsiflexion

C

166. Which of the following structures is most distal?

a. Ascending colon

b. Cecum

c. Descending colon

d. Sigmoid

D

167. Rugae may be found in the:

a. Esophagus

b. Stomach

c. Small intestine

d. Large intestine

B

104. For the parietoacanthial projection (Waters) for the sinuses, the OML forms an angle of how many degrees with the cassette?

a. 53

b. 45

c. 25

d. 37

D

105. For the PA axial projection for the colon, the central ray is angled caudad how many degrees?

a. 10 to 20

b. 20 to 30

c. 30 to 40

d. 25 to 45

C

106. The carpal bones are arranged in two rows as follows:

a. Proximal row (scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform) and distal row (trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate)

b. Distal row (scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform) and proximal row (trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate)

c. Proximal row (scaphoid, triquetral, capitate, pisiform) and distal row (trapezium, trapezoid, lunate, hamate)

d. The carpals are not arranged in rows

A. Be sure to review the placement of the carpal bones.

107. The prominent point of the elbow is called the:

a. Olecranon, part of the radius

b. Semilunar notch

c. Trochlea

d. Olecranon, part of the ulna

D. Two similar answers, such as A and D, usually indicate that one of them is the correct answer.

108. Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the cervical spine?

a. Talipes

b. Colles fracture

c. Ankylosing spondylitis

d. Jefferson fracture

D. The Jefferson fracture is a comminuted fracture of the ring of the atlas.

109. Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the hand?

a. Talipes

b. Colle fracture

c. Boxer fracture

d. Ankylosing spondylitis

C. A boxer’s fracture is a transverse fracture of the neck of the fifth metacarpal.

110. Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the distal forearm?

a. Talipes

b. Colle fracture

c. Boxer fracture

d. Ankylosing spondylitis

B. A Colles’ fracture is a transverse fracture through the distal radius.

111. Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the feet?

a. Talipes

b. Colle fracture

c. Boxer fracture

d. Ankylosing spondylitis

A. Talipes is another term for clubfoot.

112. Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the entire spine?

a. Talipes

b. Colle fracture

c. Boxer fracture

d. Ankylosing spondylitis

D. Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disease of the spine that causes fusion of the joints involved.

149. The lateral transthoracic humerus, oblique sternum, and lateral thoracic spine may be imaged best by using:

a. Short exposure time

b. Breathing technique

c. Image intensifier

d. CT

C. Breathing technique, also known as autotomography, involves placing superimposing structures in motion while the x-ray tube and IR remain stationary

150. A patient unable to supinate the hand for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the forearm:

a. Should be made to do so to provide a diagnostic radiograph

b. Probably has a fracture of the radial head and must be handled carefully

c. Probably has a low pain tolerance and must be handled carefully

d. May require radiographs with and without weights

B. Knowing the effect of injuries helps with positioning of the patient and prevents further injury

151. When a posteroanterior (PA) axial projection of the clavicle is performed, the central ray should be angled:

a. 15 degrees cephalad

b. 15 degrees caudad

c. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad

d. 25 to 30 degrees caudad

D. This is a PA axial projection of the clavicle, so the tube angulation is caudad. The tube angulation is cephalad for the AP axial projection

152. When a lateral projection of the knee is performed, the knee should be:

a. Extended 20 to 30 degrees

b. Flexed to a 90-degree angle

c. Flexed 20 to 30 degrees

d. Fully extended

C. Note the use of a range in the answer. This is what you will probably encounter on the ARRT exam.

153. When a tangential projection of the patella is performed with the patient prone, the central ray should be angled:

a. 15 degrees cephalad

b. 15 degrees caudad

c. 25 degrees cephalad

d. 45 degrees cephalad

D

154. Use of which of the following would provide an improved image of the femur?

a. Wedge filter

b. Anode heel effect

c. Short SID

d. Long OID

B. Place the proximal femur (the thicker part of the thigh) under the cathode portion of the x-ray beam. A trough filter is used for chest radiography

155. When an AP projection of the hip is performed, the central ray is directed:

a. Perpendicular to a point 2 inches medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) at the level of the superior margin of the greater trochanter

b. Parallel to a point 2 inches medial to the ASIS at the level of the superior margin of the greater trochanter

c. At a 15-degree cephalad angle

d. To the level of the ASIS

A. Know those exact centering points.

156. When an AP oblique projection is performed for the cervical vertebrae, the central ray is directed:

a. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad

b. 15 to 20 degrees caudad

c. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad

d. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

D. If this were a PA oblique projection, choice B would be correct.

157. When the AP oblique projection is performed for the lumbar vertebrae, the side of interest is:

a. Farthest from the image receptor

b. Closest to the image receptor

c. Rotated 30 degrees

d. Rotated 20 degrees

B. This is an AP oblique

158. When the PA oblique projection for the sacroiliac joints is performed, the side of interest is:

a. Farthest from the image receptor

b. Closest to the image receptor

c. Rotated 10 degrees

d. Rotated 45 degrees

B. This is a PA oblique.

159. Routine chest radiography is performed:

a. At the end of full inspiration

b. At the end of full expiration

c. At the end of the second full inspiration

d. With the patient supine or upright

C. The second inspiration would be deeper than just a single inspiration. This is a more complete and descriptive answer than choice A.

160. The primary purpose of performing oblique projections of the ribs is:

a. To image the axillary portion of the ribs

b. To image the ribs above the diaphragm

c. To image the ribs below the diaphragm

d. To determine the extent of the patient’s pain tolerance

A. Be sure you know why certain projections are used

161. When the PA projection of the skull is performed to image the frontal bone:

1. The central ray is directed perpendicular to the IR

2. The OML is perpendicular to the IR

3. The central ray exits at the glabella

4. MSP is parallel to the cassette

a. All are true

b. 1, 2

c. 1, 3, 4

d. 1, 3

B. Choice 3 is incorrect because the central ray exits at the nasion when the frontal bone is being examined. Choice 4 is incorrect because the MSP is perpendicular to the cassette.

162. Which of the following bones has (have) no body?

a. Atlas

b. Axis

c. Thoracic vertebrae

d. Lumbar vertebrae

A

163. This forms the medial part of the anterior chest wall:

a. Manubrium

b. Floating

c. Xiphoid

d. Sternum

D

164. Which of the following is (are) located just below the head of the humerus?

a. Greater and lesser tubercles

b. Bicipital groove

c. Capitulum

d. Trochlea

A

165. Blood vessels, the bronchial tree, and nerves enter the lungs at this point:

a. Trachea

b. Left lung

c. Right lung

d. Hilus

D

166. The narrow distal end of the stomach that connects with the small intestine is called the:

a. Rugae

b. Pylorus

c. Fundus

d. Greater curvature

B

167. The part of the urinary system located between the renal pelvis and the bladder is called the:

a. Cortex

b. Medulla

c. Nephron

d. Ureter

D

104. An enlargement at the end of a bone is called a:

a. Prominence

b. Sharp prominence

c. Tubercle

d. Head

D

105. A rounded projection of moderate size is called a:

a. Prominence

b. Sharp prominence

c. Tubercle

d. Tuberosity

C

106. A spine describes a:

a. Prominence

b. Sharp prominence

c. Tubercle

d. Tuberosity

B

107. A pit is described as a:

a. Fossa

b. Groove

c. Sulcus

d. Sinus

A

108. A furrow is described as a:

a. Fossa

b. Groove

c. Sulcus

d. Sinus

B. Be sure to review these definitions. You are not likely to be asked more than one on the Registry exam, but you will want to get it correct.

109. A “typical” skull would be described as:

a. Synarthroses

b. Amphiarthroses

c. Diarthroses

d. Mesocephalic

D

110. Synovial joints are called:

a. Synarthroses

b. Amphiarthroses

c. Diarthroses

d. Mesocephalic

C

111. Fibrous joints are called:

a. Synarthroses

b. Amphiarthroses

c. Diarthroses

d. Mesocephalic

A

112. The radiocarpal joint has what type of movement?

a. Hinge

b. Pivot

c. Saddle

d. Condyloid

D

113. The proximal radioulnar articulation has what type of movement?

a. Hinge

b. Pivot

c. Saddle

d. Gliding

B. Review the various types of joints so you will be able to handle any question you are asked about them

114. Which of the following bones has a temporal process?

a. Sphenoid bone

b. Ethmoid bone

c. Mandible

d. Zygomatic bone

D

115. Which of the following bones has an alveolar process?

a. Sphenoid bone

b. Ethmoid bone

c. Mandible

d. Maxilla

D

116. Which of the following bones has wings?

a. Sphenoid bone

b. Ethmoid bone

c. Mandible

d. Maxilla

A

117. Which of the following bones has a coronal suture?

a. Frontal bone

b. Temporal bone

c. Occipital bone

d. Parietal bone

D

118. Which of the following bones has an external protuberance?

a. Frontal bone

b. Temporal bone

c. Occipital bone

d. Mandible

C. Be sure to review the major anatomy of the skull. Even though routine skull series are seldom performed, having been replaced by computed tomography, skull questions are still asked on the ARRT exam.

119. Which of the following bones consists of five fused segments?

a. Sacrum

b. Axis

c. Thoracic vertebra

d. Lumbar vertebra

A

120. Which of the following bones has a dens?

a. Atlas

b. Axis

c. Thoracic vertebra

d. Lumbar vertebra

B

121. Which of the following individual vertebra is larger and heavier than other individual vertebrae?

a. Atlas

b. Axis

c. Thoracic vertebra

d. Lumbar vertebra

D

122. The eleventh and twelfth pairs of ribs are called:

a. Manubrium

b. Floating

c. Xiphoid

d. Jugular notch

B

123. The blunt cartilaginous tip of the sternum is the:

a. Manubrium

b. Floating

c. Xiphoid

d. Jugular notch

C

124. Located between the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus is (are) the:

a. Greater and lesser tubercles

b. Bicipital groove

c. Capitulum

d. Trochlea

B

125. Located below the tubercles of the humerus is (are) the:

a. Greater and lesser tubercles

b. Bicipital groove

c. Capitulum

d. Surgical neck

D

126. Which of the following part(s) of the humerus articulate(s) with the ulna?

a. Greater and lesser tubercles

b. Bicipital groove

c. Capitulum

d. Trochlea

D

127. Which bone is located in the wrist, between the trapezoid and the hamate?

a. Scaphoid

b. Hamate

c. Pisiform

d. Capitate

D

128. Which bone is located in the wrist, between the lunate and the pisiform?

a. Scaphoid

b. Hamate

c. Pisiform

d. Triquetrum

D

129. Which bone distributes body weight from the tibia to the other tarsal bones?

a. Navicular

b. Calcaneus

c. Talus

d. Cuboid

C

130. Which bone lies along the lateral border of the navicular bone?

a. Navicular

b. Calcaneus

c. Talus

d. Cuboid

D

131. Which of the following articulate(s) with the first, second, and third metatarsal bones?

a. Navicular

b. Calcaneus

c. Talus

d. Cuneiforms

D. It is important to be able to “label” anatomy whether on drawings, on radiographs, or, as these questions illustrate, by using words.

132. This structure has superior, middle, and inferior lobes:

a. Trachea

b. Left lung

c. Right lung

d. Hilus

C

133. This structure is approximately 12 cm long and is located in front of the esophagus:

a. Trachea

b. Left lung

c. Right lung

d. Hilus

A

134. The narrow distal end of the stomach that connects with the small intestine is called the:

a. Rugae

b. Pylorus

c. Fundus

d. Greater curvature

B

135. The section of the stomach where the esophagus enters is called the:

a. Rugae

b. Pylorus

c. Fundus

d. Cardiac portion

D

136. The lateral surface of the stomach is called the:

a. Rugae

b. Pylorus

c. Fundus

d. Greater curvature

D

137. The portion of the colon located between the splenic flexure and the sigmoid portion is called the:

a. Duodenum

b. Descending

c. Ileum

d. Ascending

B

138. The portion of the small bowel that connects with the cecum is called the:

a. Duodenum

b. Jejunum

c. Ileum

d. Ascending

C

139. The portion of the small bowel that connects with the stomach is called the:

a. Duodenum

b. Jejunum

c. Ileum

d. Ascending

A

140. The outer part of the kidney is called the:

a. Cortex

b. Medulla

c. Nephron

d. Glomeruli

A

141. The part of the kidney through which blood is first filtered is called the:

a. Cortex

b. Medulla

c. Nephron

d. Glomeruli

D. Be comfortable with answering questions regarding the alimentary canal and the urinary system. These types of questions are asked on the certification exam. Study tips: For the following series of questions, be sure to know the exact centering point that you learned in positioning class and from Chapter 5 of this text. Also be aware that in some Registry exam questions you may be given ranges of angles from which to choose, making it easier to choose the correct answer. This may occur because not all positioning textbooks agree on certain angles.

142. For radiography of the fingers, the central ray enters:

a. Perpendicular to the distal interphalangeal joint

b. Parallel to the distal interphalangeal joint

c. Parallel to the proximal interphalangeal joint

d. Perpendicular to the proximal interphalangeal joint

D

143. For a PA projection of the hand, the central ray is centered:

a. Perpendicular to the first metacarpophalangeal joint

b. Perpendicular to the third metatarsophalangeal joint

c. Parallel to the third metacarpophalangeal joint

d. Perpendicular to the third metacarpophalangeal joint

D

144. For a lateral projection of the wrist, the elbow must be flexed:

a. 45 degrees

b. 90 degrees

c. Only slightly

d. Approximately 25 degrees

B. This is difficult for a patient with an elbow injury

145. For PA axial projection of the clavicle, the central ray is angled:

a. 25 to 30 degrees caudad

b. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad

c. 20 degrees caudad

d. 20 degrees cephalad

A. Distinguish between PA and AP. Be sure to read the question carefully. Remember that the humerus and forearm must also be in the same plane.

146. For AP projection of the toes, the central ray enters at the:

a. Third metatarsophalangeal joint

b. Second metacarpophalangeal joint

c. First metatarsophalangeal joint

d. Second metatarsophalangeal joint

D

147. For AP projection of the foot, the central ray enters at the:

a. Head of the third metatarsal

b. Head of the second metatarsal

c. Base of the first metatarsal

d. Base of the third metatarsal

D

148. For axial projection of the calcaneus, the central ray is angled how many degrees to the long axis of the foot?

a. 25

b. 15

c. 10

d. 40

D

149. For AP projection of the ankle, the central ray is directed perpendicular to the:

a. Lateral malleolus

b. Ankle joint midway between malleoli

c. Medial malleolus

d. Tibia

B

150. For AP projection of the knee, the central ray is angled:

a. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad

b. 5 to 7 degrees caudad

c. 10 degrees cephalad

d. 10 degrees caudad

A

151. For AP projection of the cervical spine, the central ray is directed:

a. 10 degrees cephalad

b. Parallel to C4

c. 15 to 20 degrees caudad

d. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

D

152. For lateral projection of the cervical spine, the central ray is directed:

a. Perpendicular to C4

b. Parallel to C4

c. 15 to 20 degrees caudad

d. 20 to 25 degrees cephalad

A

153. For AP projection of the thoracic spine, the central ray is directed:

a. 5 degrees cephalad

b. Parallel to T7

c. 3 to 4 degrees caudad

d. Perpendicular to T7

D

154. For AP projection of the lumbar spine, the central ray is directed:

a. Parallel to midline, entering at the level of the iliac crests

b. Perpendicular to L2

c. Perpendicular to midline, entering at the level of the iliac crests

d. Perpendicular to L4

C

155. For AP oblique projections of the sacroiliac joints, the central ray is directed:

a. 1 inch lateral to elevated ASIS

b. 1 inch medial to elevated ASIS

c. 1 inch lateral to dependent ASIS

d. 1 inch medial to dependent ASIS

B

156. For PA projection of the chest, the central ray is directed:

a. Perpendicular to T10

b. Parallel to the thoracic spine

c. Perpendicular to T7

d. Perpendicular to the posterior ribs

C

157. For AP projection of the lower ribs, the central ray is directed:

a. Perpendicular to T10

b. Perpendicular to T5

c. Perpendicular to T7

d. Perpendicular to T12

D

158. For AP axial (Towne) projection for the skull, the central ray is directed:

a. 30 degrees to IOML

b. 37 degrees to OML

c. 25 degrees to IOML

d. 30 degrees to OML

D

159. For lateral projection of the facial bones, the central ray enters at the:

a. Glabella

b. Medial surface of the zygomatic bone

c. Medial surface of the nasal bone

d. Lateral surface of the zygomatic bone

D

160. An imaging exam using a contrast agent to visualize the uterus and fallopian tubes is called a(n):

a. Uterogram

b. Hysterosalpingogram

c. Intravenous urogram

d. Pregnancy study

B

161. An imaging exam using a contrast agent to evaluate possible herniated intervertebral discs is called a(n):

a. Arthrogram

b. Spinal study

c. Myelogram

d. Discography

C

162. An exam that may be diagnostic and therapeutic is:

a. Hysterosalpingogram

b. Myelogram

c. Arthrogram

d. Barium enema

A

163. The injection site for a lumbar myelogram is:

a. C6-C7

b. L5-S1

c. L3-L4

d. L1-L2

C

164. An imaging exam using a contrast agent to visualize possible meniscal tears is called a(n):

a. Myelogram

b. Arthrogram

c. Joint manipulation study

d. Sports injury exam

B

165. Arthrography is increasingly being replaced by what imaging modality?

a. CT

b. Diagnostic ultrasound

c. PET scanning

d. MRI

D

166. The ilium is part of the:

a. Hip

b. Shoulder

c. Skull

d. Small intestine

A

167. An AP lordotic chest radiograph best demonstrates the:

a. Apices of the lungs

b. Bases of the lungs

c. Mediastinal structures

d. Position of the diaphragm

A