Egan's Chapter 16 Bedside Assessment of the Patient 2
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1. Which of the following can be considered a purpose of the interview the RT performs?
To collect diagnostic information
To establish a rapport with the patient
To identify the effect of therapy
2. The patient interview conducted by the clinician is done in which space?
Personal space
3. Which of the following is an example of a leading question?
a.
Is your breathing better now?
b.
How is your breathing now?
c.
When did your breathing change?
d.
Where is your pain located?
Is your breathing better now?
4. Which of the following are common causes of an increase in the drive to breathe, which would increase the sensation of dyspnea?
2. Acidosis
3. High fever
4. Hypocapnia
5. What term is used to describe difficult breathing in the reclining position?
Orthopnea
6. What term is used to describe shortness of breath in the upright position?
Platypnea
7. Which of the following factors has minimal or no impact on the effectiveness of the patient's cough?
Pulmonary vascular resistance
8. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a dry, nonproductive cough?
Pulmonary fibrosis
9. What is the technical term for secretions from the tracheobronchial tree that have not been contaminated by the mouth
Phlegm
10. What term is used to describe sputum that has pus in it?
Purulent
11. Which of the following terms is used to describe coughing up blood-streaked sputum?
b.
Hemoptysis
12. Which of the following characteristics are typical for pleuritic chest pain?
1. Located laterally.
2. Sharp and stabbing in nature.
3. Increases with breathing.
4. Radiates to the arm.
a.
3 and 4 only
b.
1 and 3 only
c.
1, 2, and 3 only
d.
1, 2, and 4 only
1, 2, and 3 only
13. What term is used to describe the chest pain associated with blockage of the coronary arteries?
a.
Angina
b.
Myocarditis
c.
Myalgia
d.
Infarction
Angina
14. What change in the patient's respiratory breathing pattern is commonly seen with significant fever?
a.
Slower rate
b.
More rapid rate
c.
More prolonged expiratory time
d.
More prolonged inspiratory time
More rapid rate
15. What is the most common cause of pedal edema?
a.
Liver failure
b.
Kidney failure
c.
Heart failure
d.
Electrolyte imbalances
Heart failure
16. Which of the following are critical elements of a patient's past medical history?
1. Childhood diseases
2. Prior major illnesses or surgery
3. Marital status
4. Drugs and immunizations
a.
1 and 2 only
b.
1 and 3 only
c.
1, 2, and 3 only
d.
1, 2, and 4 only
1, 2, and 3 only
17. Which of the following are elements of a patient's social and environmental history?
1. Occupation and employment history
2. Drugs and medications
3. Recent travel
4. Living arrangements
a.
1, 3, and 4 only
b.
1 and 4 only
c.
1, 2, and 3 only
d.
1, 2, 3, and 4
1, 3, and 4 only
18. Which of the following are associated with diaphoresis?
1. Fever
2. Severe stress
3. Acute anxiety
4. Hemoptysis
a.
2 and 3 only
b.
1 and 4 only
c.
1, 2, and 3 only
d.
2, 3, and 4 only
1, 2, and 3 only
19. Which of the following is most commonly associated with tripodding?
a.
Severe pulmonary hyperinflation
b.
Congestive heart disease
c.
Pneumonia
d.
Pulmonary fibrosis
Severe pulmonary hyperinflation
20. Your patient has an abnormal sensorium. Which of the following is most likely true?
a.
The patient knows his or her name.
b.
The patient is confused about where he or she is.
c.
The patient is aware of the correct day.
d.
The patient knows the name of the hospital he or she has been taken to.
The patient is confused about where he or she is.
21. What structure in the body is responsible for regulating the body temperature?
a.
Pituitary gland
b.
Thyroid gland
c.
Hypothalamus
d.
Thymus gland
Hypothalamus
22. What is the most common cause of hypothermia?
a.
Exposure to cold environment
b.
Head injury
c.
Stroke
d.
Thyroid gland dysfunction
Exposure to cold environment
23. Which of the following sites is closest to core body temperature?
a.
Axillary
b.
Oral
c.
Rectal
d.
Forehead
Rectal
24. Which of the following is least likely to cause tachycardia?
a.
Fever
b.
Severe pain
c.
Hypotension
d.
Hypothermia
Hypothermia
25. What two factors determine cardiac output?
a.
Ventricular filling and heart rate
b.
Stroke volume and heart rate
c.
Stroke volume and respiratory rate
d.
Heart rate and tidal volume
Stroke volume and heart rate
26. Which of the following is a common cause of pulsus paradoxus?
a.
Acute asthma attack
b.
Severe pneumonia
c.
Congestive heart failure
d.
Myocardial infarction
Acute asthma attack
27. Which of the following are common causes of tachypnea?
1. Hypoxemia
2. Exercise
3. Narcotic overdose
4. Metabolic acidosis
a.
2, 3, and 4 only
b.
1, 2, and 4 only
c.
2 and 3 only
d.
1 and 4 only
1, 2, and 4 only
28. What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
a.
90 to 140 mm Hg
b.
80 to 100 mm Hg
c.
75 to 100 mm Hg
d.
60 to 100 mm Hg
90 to 140 mm Hg
29. What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
a.
40 to 80 mm Hg
b.
60 to 90 mm Hg
c.
80 to 110 mm Hg
d.
60 to 110 mm Hg
60 to 90 mm Hg
30. What is the normal range for pulse pressure?
a.
20 to 35 mm Hg
b.
30 to 60 mm Hg
c.
30 to 40 mm Hg
d.
30 to 60 mm Hg
30 to 40 mm Hg
31. Which of the following is a true statement about the cause of systemic hypertension in adult patients?
a.
The cause is often unknown.
b.
The cause is often related to poor diet.
c.
The cause is often related to a lack of exercise.
d.
The cause is often related to sleep apnea.
The cause is often unknown.
32. Which of the following are causes of hypotension?
1. Heart failure
2. Hypovolemia
3. Mild tachycardia
4. Peripheral vasoconstriction
a.
2 and 4 only
b.
1, 2, and 4 only
c.
3 and 4 only
d.
1, 2, 3, and 4
1, 2, and 4 only
33. What artery is most often used to assess arterial blood pressure?
a.
Femoral
b.
Radial
c.
Ulnar
d.
Brachial
Brachial
34. Why should the respiratory therapist perform a blood pressure assessment fairly quickly?
a.
The procedure is expensive.
b.
The procedure cuts off blood flow to the forearm temporarily.
c.
The respiratory therapist has other procedures to do.
d.
The procedure is billed by the time involved.
The procedure cuts off blood flow to the forearm temporarily.
35. Which of the following is/are advantages of the digital blood pressure measurement devices?
a.
They reduce the risk of human error.
b.
They reduce the cost.
c.
They have an alarm.
d.
They measure blood pressure and stroke volume.
They reduce the risk of human error.
36. What is indicated by the presence of central cyanosis?
a.
Respiratory failure
b.
Circulatory failure
c.
Anemia
d.
Hypotension
Respiratory failure
37. What is the advantage of COPD patients breathing through pursed lips during exhalation?
a.
Helps the patient focus on breathing.
b.
Promotes more complete emptying of the lungs.
c.
Reduces the patient's anxiety level.
d.
Improves arterial pH levels.
Promotes more complete emptying of the lungs.
38. Which of the following may cause the trachea to shift to the right?
a.
Right-sided tension pneumothorax
b.
Right-sided large pleural effusion
c.
Right upper lobe atelectasis
d.
Left lower lobe pneumonia
Right upper lobe atelectasis
39. What is the most common cause of jugular venous distention (JVD)?
a.
Right-sided heart failure
b.
Arterial hypoxemia
c.
Tension pneumothorax
d.
Acute systemic hypertension
Right-sided heart failure
40. Which of the following is the least likely cause of lymphadenopathy in the neck?
a.
Lymphoma
b.
Pulmonary infection
c.
Congestive heart failure
d.
Lung cancer
Congestive heart failure
41. What disease is associated with a barrel chest?
a.
Emphysema
b.
Heart failure
c.
Pneumonia
d.
Pleural effusions
Emphysema
42. What term is used to describe an abnormal anteroposterior curvature of the spine?
a.
Scoliosis
b.
Pectus excavatum
c.
Kyphosis
d.
Pectus carinatum
Kyphosis
43. You observe a patient's breathing pattern as very irregular and interspersed with long periods of apnea. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
a.
Central nervous system disorder
b.
Congestive heart failure
c.
Metabolic acidosis
d.
Increased intracranial pressure
Increased intracranial pressure
44. While observing a patient's breathing, you note that the depth and rate first increase, then decrease, followed by a period of apnea. Which of the following terms would you use in charting this observation?
a.
Apneustic breathing
b.
Cheyne-Stokes breathing
c.
Biot's breathing
d.
Paradoxical breathing
Cheyne-Stokes breathing
45. While observing a patient's breathing, you note that the depth and rate first increase, then decrease, followed by a period of apnea. Which of the following are potential causes of this abnormality?
1. Central nervous system disorder
2. Congestive heart failure
3. Metabolic acidosis
a.
1 and 2 only
b.
2 and 3 only
c.
1 and 3 only
d.
1, 2, and 3
1 and 2 only
46. What is indicated by retractions?
a.
An increase in PaCO2
b.
An increase in the work of breathing
c.
A decrease in blood flow to the lungs
d.
Reduction in lung volumes
An increase in the work of breathing
47. What breathing pattern is associated with severe atelectasis?
a.
Rapid and deep
b.
Rapid and shallow
c.
Slow and shallow
d.
Slow and deep
Rapid and shallow
48. A patient with asthma would tend to exhibit which of the following?
a.
Prolonged inhalation
b.
Slow and shallow breathing
c.
Prolonged exhalation
d.
Deep and fast breathing
Prolonged exhalation
49. What breathing pattern is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Kussmaul breathing
b.
Apneustic breathing
c.
Biot's breathing
d.
Apnea
Kussmaul breathing
50. What term is used to describe the breathing pattern seen in COPD patients in whom the lower costal margins of the chest wall draw inward with each inspiration?
a.
Hoover's sign
b.
Kussmaul's sign
c.
Abdominal paradox sign
d.
Respiratory alternans sign
Hoover's sign
51. What is indicated by the breathing pattern known as abdominal paradox?
a.
Obstructive lung disease
b.
Restrictive lung disease
c.
Heart failure
d.
Diaphragm fatigue
Diaphragm fatigue
52. Which of the following would cause an increase in tactile fremitus?
a.
Pleural effusion
b.
Pneumonia
c.
Emphysema
d.
Pneumothorax
Pneumonia
53. While palpating the chest of a patient who repeats the words "ninety-nine," you note an area of increased tactile fremitus over the left lower lobe. Which of the following could explain this finding?
1. Pneumothorax
2. Emphysema
3. Pneumonia
4. Pleural effusions
a.
2 only
b.
1 and 4 only
c.
1, 2, and 4
d.
3 only
3 only
54. While palpating the thorax of a patient who repeats the words "ninety-nine," you note a localized area of decreased tactile fremitus on the lower right side. Which of the following could explain this finding?
1. Atelectasis on the right
2. Right-sided lower pneumothorax
3. Right-sided lower pleural effusion
4. Obstruction of a bronchus in the right lung
a.
2, 3, and 4 only
b.
1 and 3 only
c.
3 and 4 only
d.
1, 3, and 4 only
2, 3, and 4 only
55. On palpating the neck region of a patient on a mechanical ventilator, you notice a crackling sound and sensation. What is the most likely cause of this observation?
a.
Subcutaneous emphysema
b.
Upper bronchial obstruction
c.
Pneumonia of the upper lobes
d.
Atelectasis of the upper lobes
Subcutaneous emphysema
56. The vibration created by percussion penetrates the lung to approximately what depth?
a.
1 to 2 cm
b.
3 to 5 cm
c.
5 to 7 cm
d.
8 to 10 cm
5 to 7 cm
57. To minimize bony interference with percussion on the posterior chest wall, the practitioner should have the patient do which of the following?
a.
Lean forward at a 45-degree angle.
b.
Keep his or her arms at the sides of the body.
c.
Raise his or her arms above the shoulders.
d.
Place his or her hands on the hips.
Raise his or her arms above the shoulders.
58. While percussing a patient's chest wall, you encounter an area that produces a decreased resonance to percussion. Which of the following are potential causes of this finding?
1. Pneumothorax
2. Pleural effusion
3. Pneumonia
4. Atelectasis
a.
2 and 3 only
b.
2 and 4 only
c.
2, 3, and 4 only
d.
1, 2, 3, and 4
2, 3, and 4 only
59. While percussing a patient's chest wall, you detect an abnormal increase in resonance. Which of the following are possible causes of this finding?
1. Asthma
2. Pneumothorax
3. Emphysema
4. Pneumonia
a.
1, 2, and 3 only
b.
2 and 4 only
c.
1, 3, and 4 only
d.
1, 2, 3, and 4
1, 2, and 3 only
60. Which of the following represent proper chest auscultation technique?
1. The practitioner should begin auscultation at the lung bases.
2. The patient should be instructed to breathe through an open mouth.
3. The patient should be placed in a comfortable upright position.
4. The patient should avoid deeply inhaling because it can mask certain lung sounds.
a.
1 and 4 only
b.
1, 2, and 3 only
c.
3 only
d.
1, 2, and 4 only
1, 2, and 3 only
61. Soft, muffled sounds heard mainly during inspiration over the peripheral lung parenchyma best describe which of the following breath sounds?
a.
Vesicular
b.
Bronchovesicular
c.
Bronchial
d.
Tracheal
Vesicular
62. Loud, tubular breath sounds with an expiratory component equal to the inspiratory component best describes which of the following breath sounds?
a.
Adventitious
b.
Bronchial
c.
Vesicular
d.
Bronchovesicular
Bronchial
63. During auscultation of a patient's chest, you hear abnormal discontinuous "bubbling" sounds at the lung bases. Which of the following chart entries best describes this finding?
a.
"Bronchial sounds heard at lung bases."
b.
"Wheezes heard at lung bases."
c.
"Crackles heard at lung bases."
d.
"Rhonchi heard at lung bases."
"Crackles heard at lung bases."
64. What term best describes a loud, high-pitched continuous sound heard (often with the unaided ear) primarily over the larynx or trachea during inhalation in patients with upper airway obstruction?
a.
Stridor
b.
Rhonchi
c.
Crackles
d.
Wheeze
Stridor
65. What does the presence of stridor indicate?
a.
Lower airway obstruction
b.
Increased secretions in the large airways
c.
Upper airway obstruction
d.
Bronchial spasm
Upper airway obstruction
66. Which of the following can cause decreased breath sounds?
1. Air or fluid in the pleural space
2. Hyperinflation of lung tissue
3. Mucus plugging of the airways
4. Shallow or slow breathing
a.
2 and 4 only
b.
1, 2, and 3 only
c.
1, 2, 3, and 4
d.
2, 3, and 4 only
1, 2, 3, and 4
67. Which of the following changes in the characteristics of wheezing indicate improvement in airway obstruction following bronchodilator therapy?
a.
Lower pitch, shorter duration
b.
Higher pitch, shorter duration
c.
Lower pitch, longer duration
d.
Higher pitch, longer duration
Lower pitch, shorter duration
68. During auscultation of a patient's chest, you hear coarse crackles throughout both inspiration and expiration. These sounds clear when the patient coughs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these adventitious sounds?
a.
Opening of closed smaller airways or alveoli
b.
Opening of collapsed large, proximal airways
c.
Variable obstruction to flow in the upper airway
d.
Movement of excessive secretions in the airways
Movement of excessive secretions in the airways
69. Inspiratory crackles in patients without excess secretions are most commonly associated with which of the following?
a.
Reduced chest-wall sound transmission
b.
Airways popping open during inspiration
c.
Complete obstruction of the upper airway
d.
Mucosal edema or inflammation
Airways popping open during inspiration
70. Which of the following are true of early inspiratory crackles?
1. They most often occur in COPD patients.
2. They generally indicate severe airway obstruction.
3. They are affected by coughing or positional change.
4. They are usually scant (few in number).
a.
2 and 4 only
b.
1, 2, and 3 only
c.
3 and 4 only
d.
1, 2, and 4 only
1, 2, and 4 only
71. In which of the following conditions would late-inspiratory crackles be most likely to occur?
1. Emphysema
2. Pulmonary fibrosis
3. Pneumonia
4. Pulmonary edema
a.
2, 3, and 4 only
b.
1, 3, and 4 only
c.
3 and 4 only
d.
1 and 2 only
2, 3, and 4 only
72. A creaking or grating sound that increases in intensity with deep breathing and is similar to coarse crackles, but is not affected by coughing, best describes which of the following?
a.
Rhonchi
b.
Friction rub
c.
Rales
d.
Wheezing
Friction rub
73. An increase in intensity and clarity of vocal resonance because of enhanced transmission of sound is referred to as which of the following?
a.
Bronchophony
b.
Vesicularity
c.
Pectoriloquy
d.
Egophony
Bronchophony
74. What is the area of the anterior chest wall overlying the heart called?
a.
Epigastrium
b.
Precordium
c.
Pericardium
d.
Axillary
Precordium
75. Where is the normal apical impulse (point of maximal impulse [PMI]) usually identified?
a.
Third right intercostal space, left sternal border
b.
Fifth left intercostal space, midclavicular line
c.
Third left intercostal space, anterior axillary line
d.
Fifth right intercostal space, midclavicular line
Fifth left intercostal space, midclavicular line
76. Right ventricular hypertrophy often produces a systolic thrust that can be felt and seen near which of the following?
a.
Lower left border of the sternum
b.
Upper right border of the sternum
c.
Left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
d.
Lower right border of the sternum
Lower left border of the sternum
77. In which of the following patient categories would the intensity of the point of maximal impulse (PMI) be most difficult to palpate?
a.
Chronic pulmonary hyperinflation
b.
Mitral (bicuspid) stenosis
c.
Left ventricular hypertrophy
d.
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Chronic pulmonary hyperinflation
78. Which of the following conditions would tend to shift the point of maximal impulse (PMI) farther to the left?
1. Pulmonary emphysema
2. Collapse of the left lower lobe
3. Collapse of the right lower lobe
4. Right-sided tension pneumothorax
a.
1, 2, and 3 only
b.
2 and 4 only
c.
2, 3, and 4 only
d.
1, 2, 3, and 4
2 and 4 only
79. Normal heart sounds are created primarily by which of the following?
a.
Opening of the heart valves
b.
Rush of blood during systole
c.
Closing of the heart valves
d.
Electrical conduction in the heart
Closing of the heart valves
80. The first heart sound (S1) is created primarily by which of the following?
a.
Closure of the semilunar valves
b.
Opening of the semilunar valves
c.
Opening of the atrioventricular valves
d.
Closure of the atrioventricular valves
Closure of the atrioventricular valves
81. The second heart sound (S2) is created primarily by which of the following?
a.
Closure of the semilunar valves
b.
Opening of the atrioventricular valves
c.
Closure of the atrioventricular valves
d.
Opening of the semilunar valves
Closure of the semilunar valves
82. Splitting of the second heart sound (S2) is normally most pronounced during which of the following?
a.
Exhalation
b.
Breath holding
c.
Inhalation
d.
Forced exhalation
Inhalation
83. In which of the following conditions might the intensity of the heart sounds be reduced?
1. Heart failure
2. Severe cachexia
3. Pneumothorax
4. Pleural effusion
a.
1, 3, and 4 only
b.
2 and 4 only
c.
2, 3, and 4 only
d.
1, 2, and 3 only
1, 3, and 4 only
84. In auscultating the heart sounds of a patient with chronic hypoxemia, you notice a marked increase in the intensity of the second heart sound (S2) and no splitting during inhalation. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?
a.
Mitral insufficiency
b.
Left ventricular hypertrophy
c.
Tricuspid valve stenosis
d.
Pulmonary hypertension
Pulmonary hypertension
85. In auscultating the precordium of a patient, you hear a high-pitched "whooshing" noise occurring simultaneously with S1. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?
a.
Incompetent mitral valve
b.
Stenotic tricuspid valve
c.
Incompetent pulmonic valve
d.
Stenotic mitral valve
Incompetent mitral valve
86. Diastolic murmurs are generally associated with which of the following?
1. Stenotic semilunar valve
2. Incompetent atrioventricular (AV) valve
3. Incompetent semilunar valve
4. Stenotic atrioventricular valve
a.
1, 2, and 3 only
b.
2 and 4 only
c.
3 and 4 only
d.
1, 2, 3, and 4
3 and 4 only
87. Which of the following are potential causes of cardiac murmurs?
1. Backflow of blood through an incompetent valve
2. Forward flow through a stenotic valve
3. Rapid flow through a normal valve
a.
2 and 3 only
b.
1 and 2 only
c.
1, 2, and 3
d.
1 and 3 only
1, 2, and 3
88. Which of the following pulmonary disorders is most likely to result in hepatomegaly?
a.
Pulmonary atelectasis
b.
Acute viral infections
c.
Cor pulmonale
d.
Acute asthma
Cor pulmonale
89. Which of the following abnormalities should the practitioner be on the lookout for during inspection of the extremities?
1. Digital clubbing
2. Peripheral cyanosis
3. Ascites
4. Impaired capillary refill
a.
1 and 2 only
b.
1, 2, and 4 only
c.
3 and 4 only
d.
2 only
1, 2, and 4 only
90. In which of the following disorders is digital clubbing a common physical sign?
1. Congenital heart disease
2. Lung cancer
3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
4. Pancreatic cancer
a.
3 only
b.
1, 3 and 4 only
c.
1, 2, and 4 only
d.
1, 2, and 3 only
1, 2, and 3 only
91. Which of the following is true of peripheral cyanosis?
a.
Reliable indicator of tissue hypoxia.
b.
Develops early in patients with anemia.
c.
Develops late in patients with polycythemia.
d.
Sign of inadequate tissue perfusion.
Sign of inadequate tissue perfusion.
92. In patients with chronic respiratory disease, what does pedal edema indicate?
a.
Right ventricular failure
b.
Impaired pulmonary diffusion
c.
Systemic hypertension
d.
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Right ventricular failure
93. During examination of a patient's extremities, you press firmly for a brief period on a fingernail. You observe that it takes approximately 5 sec for the color to return to the nail bed. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?
a.
Reduction in cardiac output or poor peripheral perfusion
b.
Presence of a disorder causing chronic hypoxemia
c.
Reduction in venous return to the right side of the heart
d.
Presence of a disorder causing systemic hypertension
Reduction in cardiac output or poor peripheral perfusion
94. In palpating a patient's feet and hands, you note extreme coolness to the touch. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?
a.
Presence of a disorder causing chronic hypoxemia
b.
Reduction in venous return to the right side of the heart
c.
Peripheral vasoconstriction due to inadequate perfusion
d.
Presence of a disorder causing systemic hypertension
Peripheral vasoconstriction due to inadequate perfusion
95. An RT is examining a patient suspected to have a left-sided tension pneumothorax. During inspection and palpation, the RT notices the patient's trachea has shifted to the left. Is the patient's diagnosis correct?
a.
Yes, the patient may have left-sided tension pneumothorax.
b.
No, the patient may have left upper lobe atelectasis.
c.
No, the patient may have right lower lobe pneumonia.
d.
No, patient may have left-sided large pleural effusion.
No, the patient may have left upper lobe atelectasis.
96. An emergency room patient is lying on his bed with his head elevated at a 45-degree angle. An RT, who is coming to examine the patient, notices that the patient's jugular vein extends approximately 7 cm above his sternal angle. What can the RT assume about this patient's condition?
Cor pulmonale
Cor pulmonale
97. A clinician unsuccessfully tried to take the pulse of a patient who is suffering from an asthma attack in the ER. The patient's breath sounds are diminished to absent bilaterally with a BP of 110 mm Hg systolic and 90 mm Hg diastolic. What can be concluded about this patient's condition?
1. Abdominal paradox is present.
2. Lung hyperinflation is present.
3. Pulsus paradoxus is present.
4. Pulse pressure is greater than 30 mm Hg.
2 and 3 only
98. A 55-year-old patient has been smoking a pack and a half of cigarettes (30 cigarettes) per day for 30 years. What is the patient's smoking history?
45 pack-years
99. A 23-year-old patient enters the emergency room complaining of dyspnea. The RT places the patient on oxygen as per hospital protocol and begins to interview the patient about her symptoms. She states that she is having difficulty taking a breath with chest tightness. Patient has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min with a loose productive cough. During auscultation, the RT hears bilateral wheezing in the lungs. What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
Asthma
100. What term is used to describe the absence of breathing?
Apnea
Note 
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