PTCE PRACTICE

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173 Terms

1
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Which of the following is the generic name for Tylenol?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Acetaminophen
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Lisinopril

Answer: b) Acetaminophen

2
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A patient is prescribed a medication that is contraindicated due to their chronic kidney disease. This interaction is an example of:
a) Drug-drug interaction
b) Drug-disease interaction
c) Drug-laboratory interaction
d) Drug-nutrient interaction

Answer: b) Drug-disease interaction

3
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Which of the following medications has a narrow therapeutic index (NTI)?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Levothyroxine
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Lorazepam

Answer: b) Levothyroxine

4
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What is the recommended storage temperature for vaccines?
a) Room temperature
b) 2°C to 8°C
c) -20°C to -10°C
d) 15°C to 25°C

Answer: b) 2°C to 8°C

5
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Which dosage form is typically administered subcutaneously?
a) Oral tablet
b) Intravenous injection
c) Insulin
d) Topical cream

Answer: c) Insulin

6
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Which DEA schedule classification would you find for a medication with a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use?
a) Schedule I
b) Schedule II
c) Schedule III
d) Schedule IV

Answer: a) Schedule I

7
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A pharmacy must dispose of expired medications by:
a) Returning them to the manufacturer
b) Incinerating them as per DEA regulations
c) Disposing of them in the regular trash
d) Giving them to patients

Answer: b) Incinerating them as per DEA regulations

8
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Which of the following medications would most likely be subject to a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS)?
a) Vitamin C
b) Insulin
c) Isotretinoin
d) Acetaminophen

Answer: c) Isotretinoin

9
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The FDA issues a Class I recall when:
a) There is a slight risk of injury
b) There is no risk of injury
c) The product may cause serious adverse health consequences
d) The product is defective but poses no health risk

Answer: c) The product may cause serious adverse health consequences

10
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Controlled substances must be stored:
a) In a locked cabinet
b) In the refrigerator
c) In a drawer with other medications
d) In a secure box on the counter

Answer: a) In a locked cabinet

11
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Which of the following is an example of a high-alert medication?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Warfarin
c) Metformin
d) Omeprazole

Answer: b) Warfarin

12
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The use of Tall Man lettering is designed to:
a) Reduce the risk of medication errors
b) Indicate the proper dosage form
c) Display the expiration date
d) Clarify the generic name

Answer: a) Reduce the risk of medication errors

13
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A patient presents with an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following medications should be avoided?
a) Cephalexin
b) Ibuprofen
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Metformin

Answer: a) Cephalexin

14
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When handling chemotherapy drugs, which personal protective equipment (PPE) is most important?
a) Gloves only
b) Mask and gloves
c) Gown, gloves, and eye protection
d) None

Answer: c) Gown, gloves, and eye protection

15
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What is the primary purpose of a root-cause analysis (RCA)?
a) To determine the cause of a medication error
b) To assess patient satisfaction
c) To evaluate pharmacy technician performance
d) To track inventory levels

Answer: a) To determine the cause of a medication error

16
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Which of the following is required to prepare a non-sterile compound like an ointment?
a) Laminar flow hood
b) Mortar and pestle
c) Sterile gloves
d) Microwave oven

Answer: b) Mortar and pestle

17
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If a prescription is written with the dosage "1g q12h," how many grams of medication should the patient take in 7 days?
a) 3g
b) 7g
c) 14g
d) 21g

Answer: c) 14g

18
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What is the appropriate storage method for insulin?
a) In the freezer
b) In the refrigerator
c) At room temperature
d) In direct sunlight

Answer: b) In the refrigerator

19
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When a medication expires, it should be:
a) Sold at a discounted price
b) Returned to the manufacturer
c) Discarded according to pharmacy policy
d) Given to another patient

Answer: c) Discarded according to pharmacy policy

20
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Which of the following best describes the role of National Drug Code (NDC) numbers?
a) They are used for billing purposes
b) They identify the drug’s manufacturer, product, and packaging
c) They indicate the drug's generic name
d) They show the drug's expiration date

Answer: b) They identify the drug’s manufacturer, product, and packaging

21
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What is the generic name for the brand drug “Advil”
a) Acetaminophen
b) Ibuprofen
c) Naproxen
d) Aspirin

Answer: b) Ibuprofen

22
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Which of the following medications is classified as a "beta-blocker"?

A) Losartan
B) Atenolol
C) Albuterol
D) Prednisone

Answer: b) Atenolol

23
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What is the brand name for the generic drug “Lisinopril”?
a) Norvasc
b) Zestril
c) Lipitor
d) Prilosec

Answer: b) Zestril

24
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Which of the following medications is used primarily as an antibiotic?
a) Lisinopril
b) Amoxicillin
c) Simvastatin
d) Metformin

Answer: b) Amoxicillin

25
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What class of medication does “Atorvastatin” (brand name Lipitor) belong to?
a) Statins
b) Beta-blockers
c) ACE inhibitors
d) Antidepressants

Answer: a) Statins

26
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The generic drug “Metformin” is primarily used to treat which condition?
a) Hypertension
b) Diabetes
c) High cholesterol
d) Anxiety

Answer: b) Diabetes

27
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What is the brand name for the generic medication “Omeprazole”?
a) Tylenol
b) Prilosec
c) Nexium
d) Zantac

Answer: b) Prilosec

28
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Which of the following is the brand name for the generic drug “Hydrochlorothiazide”?
a) Lasix
b) Microzide
c) Zestril
d) Lexapro

Answer: b) Microzide

29
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What class of drug is “Diazepam” (Valium) classified as?
a) Benzodiazepine
b) Opioid
c) Antihistamine
d) Antidepressant

Answer: a) Benzodiazepine

30
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Which of the following is the generic name of the drug “Zoloft”?
a) Paroxetine
b) Fluoxetine
c) Sertraline
d) Citalopram

Answer: c) Sertraline

31
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What is the primary classification of “Furosemide” (brand name Lasix)?
a) Diuretic
b) Antibiotic
c) Antihistamine
d) Analgesic

Answer: a) Diuretic

32
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“Xanax” is the brand name for which generic medication?
a) Lorazepam
b) Alprazolam
c) Diazepam
d) Clonazepam

Answer: b) Alprazolam

33
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The medication “Amlodipine” (brand name Norvasc) is primarily used to treat which condition?
a) Asthma
b) High blood pressure
c) Depression
d) Type 2 diabetes

Answer: b) High blood pressure

34
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What class of drug is “Levothyroxine” (brand name Synthroid)?
a) Antihistamine
b) Thyroid hormone replacement
c) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
d) Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

Answer: b) Thyroid hormone replacement

35
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What is the generic name for the brand drug “Cymbalta”?
a) Fluoxetine
b) Venlafaxine
c) Duloxetine
d) Sertraline

Answer: c) Duloxetine

36
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What is the typical dosage form of “Amoxicillin” (brand name Amoxil)?
a) Oral tablet, oral suspension
b) Intravenous solution
c) Topical cream
d) Rectal suppository

Answer: a) Oral tablet, oral suspension

37
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What is the usual strength of “Ibuprofen” (brand name Advil) for over-the-counter use?
a) 200 mg
b) 400 mg
c) 500 mg
d) 800 mg

Answer: a) 200 mg

38
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Which of the following routes of administration is used for the medication “Insulin”?
a) Oral
b) Intravenous
c) Subcutaneous
d) Rectal

Answer: c) Subcutaneous

39
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For the medication “Nitroglycerin,” what is a key special handling instruction?
a) Keep in a cool, dry place away from light
b) Refrigerate at all times
c) Shake vigorously before use
d) Avoid swallowing the tablet

Answer: a) Keep in a cool, dry place away from light

40
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Which of the following medications is typically given via the intravenous route?
a) Warfarin
b) Morphine
c) Acetaminophen
d) Loratadine

Answer: b) Morphine

41
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How long should a patient take “Amoxicillin” for a typical bacterial infection”?
a) 1 day
b) 3-5 days
c) 7-10 days
d) 2 weeks

Answer: c) 7-10 days

42
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Which dosage form of “Prednisone” is often used for quick onset of action in acute conditions?
a) Oral tablet
b) Intravenous inject
c) Topical cram
d) Rectal suppository

Answer: b) Intravenous injection

43
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What is the standard route of administration for “Albuterol” in the treatment of asthma exacerbations?
a) Oral
b) Inhalation
c) Intramuscular
d) Transdermal

Answer: b) Inhalation

44
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How should the medication “Enoxaparin” (brand name Lovenox) be administered?
a) Orally
b) Subcutaneously
c) Intravenously
d) Intranasally

Answer: b) Subcutaneously

45
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What strength of “Lisinopril” (brand name Zestril) is most commonly prescribed for the treatment of hypertension?
a) 2.5 mg
b) 5 mg
c) 10 mg
d) 20 mg

Answer: c) 10 mg

46
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When administering “Fentanyl” patches, what is the primary special handling instruction?
a) Apply the patch to clean, dry skin
b) Cut the patch in half if the dose is too high
c) Store in the refrigerator
d) Wear gloves when applying the patch

Answer: a) Apply the patch to clean, dry skin

47
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What is the recommended route of administration for “Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen” combination tablets (brand name Vicodin/Norco)
a) Sublingual
b) Oral
c) Intramuscular
d) Intravenous

Answer: b) Oral

48
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Which of the following is a typical duration of therapy for “Ciprofloxacin” (Cipro) in the treatment of uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTI)?
a) 1-2 days
b) 3-5 days
c) 7-14 days
d) 6 weeks

Answer: b) 3-5 days

49
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For “Methylprednisolone” (brand name Medrol), what is a common dosage form?
a) Oral tablet
b) Intranasal spray
c) Topical gel
d) Intravenous infusion

Answer: a) Oral tablet

50
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When using “Budesonide” (brand name Pulmicort), which of the following routes of administration is used?
a) Oral
b) Inhalation
c) Intravenous
d) Topical

Answer: b) Inhalation

51
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What is a key special instruction when using the medication “Clindamycin” (brand name Cleocin) in oral form?
a) Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water
b) Take with food to avoid stomach upset
c) Shake well before use
d) Do not crush or chew the capsules

Answer: d) Do not crush or chew the capsules

52
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What is the typical strength of “Hydroxychloroquine” (brand name Plaquenil) prescribed for autoimmune disorders?
a) 50 mg
b) 100 mg
c) 200 mg
d) 400 mg

Answer: c) 200 mg

53
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Which medication is typically prescribed for a duration of 3-6 months for the management of tuberculosis (TB)?
a) Rifampin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Isoniazid
d) Prednisone

Answer: c) Isoniazid

54
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What is a key instruction when administering “Epinephrine” (brand name EpiPen) via injection for an allergic reaction?
a) Inject into the upper arm
b) Inject into the thigh muscle
c) Inject subcutaneously in the abdomen
d) Inject intravenously at the healthcare facility

Answer: b) Inject into the thigh muscle

55
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Which of the following medications is typically administered as a transdermal patch and replaced every 3-7 days?
a) Clonidine
b) Fentanyl
c) Nitroglycerin
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

56
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Which of the following is a common side effect of “Lisinopril” (brand name Zestril)?
a) Drowsiness
b) Dry cough
c) Weight gain
d) Blurred vision

Answer: b) Dry cough

57
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A patient taking “Warfarin” (brand name Coumadin) develops unusual bruising and prolonged bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a) Common side effect
b) Drug interaction or overdose
c) Allergic reaction
d) Infection

Answer: b) Drug interaction or overdose

58
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What is a severe adverse effect of “Aspirin” (acetylsalicylic acid)?
a) Tinnitus
b) Liver damage
c) Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)
d) Drowsiness

Answer: c) Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)

59
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Which of the following medications is known to cause photosensitivity?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Metformin
d) Loratadine

Answer: b) Ciprofloxacin

60
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Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid medications like “Morphine” (brand name MS Contin)?
a) Diarrhea
b) Drowsiness
c) Increased appetite
d) Rash

Answer: b) Drowsiness

61
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A patient taking “Penicillin” (brand name Pen-Vee) develops a rash, difficulty breathing, and swelling of the face. What is this most likely a sign of?
a) Common side effect
b) Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)
c) Drug interaction
d) Drug tolerance

Answer: b) Severe allergic reaction (anaphlyaxis)

62
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“Levothyroxine” (brand name Synthroid) is associated with which of the following side effects if the dose is too high?
a) Bradycardia
b) Hypotension
c) Tachycardia and tremors
d) Drowsiness

Answer: c) Tachycardia and tremors

63
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What severe side effect is most commonly associated with the antibiotic Vancomycin?
a) Hearing loss
b) Liver failure
c) Red man syndrome (rash and hypotension)
d) Nausea and vomiting

Answer: Red man syndrome (rash and hypotension)

64
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A patient taking Metformin (brand name Glucophage) for diabetes presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and lactic acidosis. What is the most likely cause?
a) Common side effect
b) Severe adverse effect (lactic acidosis)
c) Drug allergy
d) Drug interaction

Answer: b) severe adverse effect (lactic acidosis)

65
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A patient reports itching and hives after taking Amoxicillin (brand name Amoxil). What is the most likely cause of this reaction?
a) Drug intolerance
b) Allergic reaction
c) Common side effect
d) Drug interaction

Answer: b) allergic reaction

66
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Which of the following medications is most likely to cause a serious side effect of “QT prolongation,” which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias?
a) Fluoxetine
b) Azithromycin
c) Metformin
d) Hydrocodone

Answer: b) Azithromycin

67
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A patient is prescribed “Hydrochlorothiazide” (brand name Micozide). Which of the following is a common side effect of this medication?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypotension
c) Weight gain
d) Increased appetite

Answer: b) Hypotension

68
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Which of the following medications can cause a severe allergic reaction known as “Stevens-Johnson Syndrome”?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Lamotrigine
c) Insulin
d) Prednisone

Answer: b) Lamotrigine

69
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A patient on “Carbamazepine” (brand name Tegretol) develops a rash, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. What should be suspected?
a) Common side effect
b) Drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction
c) Mild allergic reaction
d) Drug overdose

Answer: b) Drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction

70
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Which of the following medications is commonly associated with the side effect of constipation?
a) Digoxin
b) Oxycodone
c) Metformin
d) Omeprazole

Answer: b) Oxycodone

71
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A patient develops difficulty breathing, swelling of the face and throat, and low blood pressure after receiving Zyrtec (Cetirizine) for seasonal allergies. What is the most likely cause?
a) A common side effect
b) Anaphylactic allergic reaction
c) Drug overdose
d) Drug interaction

Answer: b) Anaphylactic allergic reaction

72
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Which of the following medications is most likely to cause gastrointestinal bleeding as a severe side effect?
a) Furosemide
b) Ibuprofen
c) Metformin
d) Hydroxyzine

Answer: b) Ibuprofen

73
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A patient taking “Captopril” (brand name Capoten) develops swelling in the lips, face, and throat. What is the most likely cause?
a) Angioedema (a severe allergic reaction)
b) Common side effect
c) Drug interaction
d) Drug overdose

Answer: a) Angioedema (a severe allergic reaction)

74
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Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with a severe allergic reaction known as “toxic epidermal necrolysis” (TEN)?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Phenytoin
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Prednisone

Answer: b) Phenytoin

75
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Which of the following drugs is commonly associated with the side effect of drowsiness or sedation?
a) Sertraline
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Amoxicillin
d) Furosemide

Answer: b) Diphenhydramine

76
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Which of the following factors primarily affects the stability of an oral suspension?
a) pH of the medium
b) Presence of the preservatives
c) Temperature during storage
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

77
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Insulin is sensitive to temperature changes. Which of the following is the best storage condition for insulin vials once opened?
a) At room temperature for 28 days
b) In the freezer (-10 °C)
c) At temperatures above 30 °C
d) In direct sunlight

Answer: a) At room temperature for 28 days

78
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Which of the following is a common cause of instability in reconstitutable drugs?
a) Improper mixing techniques
b) Exposure to light and heat
c) Incorrect dilutant
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

79
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What is the primary reason that vaccines require cold-chain storage?
a) To maintain their efficacy and prevent degradation
b) To ensure they maintain a sterile environment
c) to prevent crystallization of the vaccine
d) To reduce viscosity for easier injection

Answer: a) To maintain their efficacy and prevent degradation

80
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Which of the following factors can contribute to the degradation of injectable drugs?
a) Exposure to light
b) Contamination during preparation
c) Incorrect pH of the solution
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

81
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How does the pH of a solution affect the stability of an injectable drug?
a) pH can affect the solubility of the drug
b) pH can influence the rate of degradation of the drug
c) pH changes can alter the drug’s pharmacology
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

82
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For a medication that needs to be reconstituted before administration, what is the typical shelf life after reconstitution?
a) 24 hours
b) 3-7 days, depending on the drug
c) 30 days
d) Indefinite, as long as the bottle is sealed

Answer: b) 3-7 days, depending on the drug

83
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Which of the following is true about the stability of vaccines?
a) They are stable at ambient temperatures for months
b) They must be kept within a specific temperature range to avoid degradation
c) They remain stable in freezing conditions
d) None of the above

Answer: b) They must be kept within a specific temperature range to avoid degradation

84
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Which of the following can affect the stability of insulin when stored outside recommended conditions?
a) Freezing
b) Excessive heat
c) Sunlight exposure
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

85
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When reconstituting a medication, which of the following should be checked to ensure stability?
a) Expiration date of the reconstitution diluent
b) Correct volume of diluent added
c) Proper mixing technique
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

86
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Which of the following best defines a narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drug?
a) A drug with a large difference between the minimum effective dose and the minimum toxic dose
b) A drug that requires frequent blood monitoring to ensure therapeutic effectiveness
c) A drug with a small difference between the minimum effective dose and the minimum toxic dose
d) A drug that can be safely used without dose adjustments for different patients

Answer: c) A drug with a small difference between the minimum effective dose and the minimum toxic dose

87
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Which of the following medications is considered to have a narrow therapeutic index (NTI)?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Warfarin
c) Ibuprofen
d) Diphenhydramine

Answer: b) Warfarin

88
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What is a potential risk when using a drug with a narrow therapeutic index (NTI)?
a) Increased likelihood of adverse effects from small changes in drug concentration
b) The drug becomes less effective at higher doses
c) The drug is less likely to interact with other medications
d) The drug requires less frequent monitoring of drug levels

Answer: a) Increased likelihood of adverse effects from small changes in drug concentration

89
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Why is monitoring serum drug levels important for NTI medications?
a) To ensure the drug remains within a safe and effective concentration range
b) To avoid medication errors related to the pill’s color
c) to reduce the chance of gastrointestinal side effects
d) To evaluate liver function during therapy

Answer: a) To ensure the drug remains within a safe and effective concentration range

90
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Which of the following is true about NTI drugs?
a) Their pharmacokinetic properties are more predictable than those with a wide therapeutic index
b) They often require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) to avoid toxicity or ineffectiveness
c) They are more commonly used in chronic diseases that do not require frequent monitoring
d) they typically have a low risk of drug-drug interactions

Answer: b) They often require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) to avoid toxicity or ineffectiveness

91
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Which of the following is a major challenge when switching between different brands or formulations of NTI medications?
a) The difference in drug absorption may be significant enough to affect safety or efficacy
b) The medication will lose its effectiveness if switched
c) There is a minimal risk of drug interaction
d) Switching is usually safe without requiring monitoring

Answer: a) the difference in drug absorption may be significant enough to affect safety or efficacy

92
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Which of the following NTI medications is commonly monitored by both INR (International Normalized Ratio) and serum drug levels?
a) Phenytoin
b) Warfarin
c) Digoxin
d) Lithium

Answer: b) Warfarin

93
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When starting therapy with an NTI drug, which of the following is typically recommended?
a) Initiating treatment with a higher-than-usual dose to achieve rapid therapeutic levels
b) Close monitoring of the drug’s plasma concentration and clinical response
c) Avoiding any further tests or checks after the first dose
d) Discontinuing therapy if side effects occur within the first week

Answer: b) Close monitoring of the drug’s plasma concentration and clinical response

94
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Which of the following factors may affect the stability and bioavailability of NTI drugs, requiring special consideration?
a) Patient’s weight
b) Age and renal function
c) Diet and physical activity
d) Temperature and humidity

Answer: b) Age and renal function

95
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Digoxin is an NTI drug. Which of the following is most likely to occur if the drug level becomes too high?
a) Increased blood pressure
b) Risk of arrhythmias and toxicity
c) Decreased kidney function
d) Enhanced anticoagulant effects

Answer: b) Risk of arrythmias and toxicity

96
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A patient is prescribed phenytoin, and NTI drug, for epilepsy. What is an important factor to monitor during therapy?
a) Blood glucose levels
b) Serum phenytoin concentration
c) Liver function tests exclusively
d) Only the heart rate

Answer: b) Serum phenytoin concentration

97
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Which of the following patient populations may be at increased risk for adverse effects from NTI drugs?
a) Pediatric patients with developing organ systems
b) Patients with stable, chronic conditions
c) Geriatric patients with compromised kidney or liver functions
d) Healthy adults with no prior medical history

Answer: c) Geriatric patients with compromised kidney or liver functions

98
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Which of the following is a federal requirement for the disposal of pharmaceutical waste?
a) Pharmaceutical waste must be mixed with non-hazardous materials before disposal
b) Pharmaceutical waste must be discarded in landfills without any treatment
c) Pharmaceutical waste must be segregated by type (e.g., non-hazardous, hazardous) and disposed of according to EPA regulations
d) Pharmaceutical waste can be flushed down the drain as long as it’s non-hazardous

Answer: c) Pharmaceutical waste must be segregated by type (e.g., non-hazardous, hazardous) and disposed of according to EPA regulations

99
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According to federal regulations, which of the following actions is required for a prescription of a Schedule ll controlled substance?
a) It must be handwritten by the prescriber
b) It can be refilled up to five times within six months
c) It must be electronically transmitted but can be faxed in emergencies
d) It can only be issued with a written prescription, and refills are not allowed

Answer: d) It can only be issued with a written prescription, and refills are not allowed

100
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Which of the following is true regarding the federal requirements for the storage of controlled substances?
a) Controlled substances must be stored in a locked cabinet, and access should be limited to authorized personnel
b) Controlled substances can be stored in any location as long as they are properly labeled
c) Controlled substances can be stored in the open if they are in sealed containers
d) Controlled substances do not require special storage if they are in a clinic

Answer: a) Controlled substances must be stored in a locked cabinet, and access should be limited to authorized personnel