Blood Bank Rotation

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Last updated 8:32 PM on 3/14/26
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83 Terms

1
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What is the minimum content of apheresis platelets?

Apheresis platelets must contain a minimum of 3.0 x 10^11 platelets.

2
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What does the R1R1 phenotype indicate about Rh antigens?

R1R1 = DCe/DCe, so the person has D, C, e and lacks c and E.

3
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What would a person with lele sese and H substance in secretions have?

H only in saliva, not Lea or Leb.

4
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With which cells do antibodies that show dosage react strongest?

Homozygous antigen-positive cells rather than heterozygous cells.

5
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Give an example of homozygous expression stronger for dosage.

Jk(a+b-) reacts stronger than Jk(a+b+) because Jk(a+b-) is homozygous for Jka.

6
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What is the mechanism of PEG in antigen-antibody reactions?

PEG enhances antigen-antibody reactions by removing water from the test environment, concentrating antibody.

7
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Is anti-HAV IgM routinely performed in donor testing?

No, it is not a routine donor screening test.

8
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What are examples of routine hepatitis donor testing?

HBsAg, anti-HBc, anti-HCV, and NAT for HBV/HCV.

9
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What does autocontrol test?

It tests the patient's own red cells with the patient's own plasma under the same conditions as the antibody screen.

10
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How does autocontrol differ from DAT?

Autocontrol uses patient cells + patient plasma in vitro, while DAT detects antibody or complement already coating patient red cells in vivo.

11
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What is the expression of I antigen on cord blood?

I antigen is absent or weak on cord blood cells; newborn cells are rich in i antigen.

12
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How is I antigen expressed in adults?

I antigen becomes strongly expressed after birth as i converts to I.

13
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Why is AB plasma considered the universal donor plasma?

It lacks anti-A and anti-B.

14
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What is the purpose of anti-A,B reagent?

It helps detect weak A antigens and A subgroups.

15
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How are weak D positive donors labeled?

They are labeled Rh positive for transfusion purposes.

16
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Why are weak D donors labeled Rh positive?

Because donor red cells may express D antigen and could immunize an Rh-negative recipient.

17
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What is the rule-out principle in antibody identification?

You rule out antibodies when panel cells negative for reaction carry the antigen, especially in homozygous form.

18
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Why do homozygous cells matter in rule-outs?

They are preferred because dosage may make heterozygous cells react weakly or not at all.

19
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Which antigens are enhanced by enzymes?

Kidd, Rh, Lewis, P1, and I are generally enhanced.

20
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Which antigens are destroyed by enzymes?

Duffy and MNS antigens are generally destroyed or weakened.

21
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How do Kell antigens react to enzymes?

Kell antigens are generally not destroyed by enzymes and are not enhanced.

22
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What is the expiration period for frozen red cells?

Frozen RBCs may be stored up to 10 years when properly processed.

23
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Which red cells does anti-H lectin react strongest with?

Group O red cells because they have the most H substance.

24
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How do Bombay phenotype red cells react with anti-H lectin?

They do not react because they lack H antigen.

25
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What phenotypes can result from AO x BO parents?

A, B, AB, or O offspring.

26
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What is the 30-minute rule for blood return?

A blood unit may be returned to inventory only if it has been out of controlled storage for no more than 30 minutes.

27
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Why can't a unit be reissued after improper storage?

If kept outside monitored storage for more than 30 minutes, it should not be returned to inventory.

28
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What does antisera testing determine?

It determines phenotype, not genotype.

29
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Why are low-frequency antigen antibodies often missed on screening?

They may not be detected by routine screening cells.

30
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What are examples of IAT tests?

Antibody screen, antibody identification, and AHG crossmatch.

31
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Which test is not an IAT?

DAT is not an IAT because it detects in-vivo coating of red cells.

32
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What are common naturally occurring antibodies in never transfused, never pregnant patients?

Anti-M, anti-P1, anti-Lea, and anti-I.

33
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What is the Rh genotype for D-, C+, c+, E-, e+, f+?

It is consistent with dCe/dce.

34
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What does the f antigen indicate?

It is present when c and e are on the same haplotype.

35
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How can anti-e be separated from anti-Fya?

Use an enzyme panel because anti-e is enhanced by enzymes while anti-Fya is destroyed.

36
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What class is an antibody reacting only at AHG phase likely to be?

Most likely IgG.

37
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What class is an antibody reacting mainly at immediate spin likely to be?

Usually IgM.

38
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What is the most likely antibody for a cDe/cDe patient exposed to CDe/CDe cells?

Most likely stimulates anti-C.

39
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What is the significance of a historic antibody?

Antigen-negative blood must still be selected even if the current screen is negative.

40
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What is required for patients with a history of significant antibody?

They require an AHG crossmatch unless electronic crossmatch criteria are fully met.

41
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What is required for patients with a history of significant antibodies?

An AHG crossmatch is required unless electronic crossmatch criteria are fully met.

42
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What should be selected for a patient with a history of anti-E?

E-negative RBC units.

43
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What is the safest uncrossmatched emergency blood type?

Group O Rh-negative RBCs.

44
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How immunogenic is the K antigen?

K is highly immunogenic and clinically significant.

45
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When are Kell antigens developed?

Kell antigens are well developed at birth.

46
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What is the transfusion time limit for cryoprecipitate after pooling?

Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within 4 hours after thawing and pooling.

47
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Why is washing important in AHG testing?

Washing removes unbound globulins that could neutralize AHG reagent and cause false negatives.

48
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What should never be delayed in AHG testing?

AHG should be added immediately after washing and decanting.

49
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Why can crossmatch be incompatible with a negative antibody screen?

The donor unit may have a positive DAT or the donor cells may be coated.

50
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Where are MNS antigens located?

On glycophorin A and glycophorin B.

51
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What antibody is ficin helpful in identifying?

Anti-Jka.

52
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Who is a candidate for postpartum RhIG?

An Rh-negative mother with no true immune anti-D who delivers an Rh-positive infant.

53
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What is the difference between passive anti-D and immune anti-D?

Passive anti-D does not prevent postpartum RhIG if indicated; true immune anti-D means RhIG is not useful.

54
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Which antibody commonly causes delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

Anti-Jka.

55
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Why are Kidd antibodies dangerous?

They may drop to undetectable levels and cause severe delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions.

56
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Which antibody does not fit with Lea, P1, and i?

Anti-Jka does not fit because it is usually a warm-reactive clinically significant IgG antibody.

57
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What does an anaphylactic reaction to transfusion with washed cells suggest?

The patient has anti-IgA and is IgA deficient.

58
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Why do washed red cells help in IgA deficiency?

Washing removes donor plasma proteins including IgA.

59
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How should a donor unit with a clinically significant alloantibody be handled?

It should not be used for transfusion of plasma-containing components.

60
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How many units should be screened for an anti-K patient?

About 4 units on average should be screened.

61
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What does polyspecific AHG contain?

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d.

62
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What is the purpose of follow-up after a positive IAT?

To determine antibody specificity using reagent red cell panels.

63
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What does anti-M reacting only with M+N- cells indicate?

It shows dosage, reacting more strongly with homozygous M-positive cells.

64
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When is RhIG not indicated?

If the mother already has immune anti-D.

65
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What percentage of the population is Rh positive?

About 85%.

66
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What action should be taken with platelets that have visible clots?

Do not issue; quarantine the unit for further evaluation.

67
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In which phenotype is anti-U most likely found?

Individuals of African ancestry with S-s- phenotype.

68
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Why can S-s- individuals make anti-U?

U antigen is present on almost all cells except those lacking both S and s.

69
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What should be done to confirm rouleaux causing false-positive IS crossmatch?

Perform saline replacement.

70
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What blood group confers resistance to Plasmodium vivax?

Absence of Duffy antigen.

71
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What is the best clerical error detection method in acute transfusion reactions?

Repeat ABO typing on pre- and posttransfusion samples.

72
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What blood product modification is required for bone marrow transplant patients?

Irradiation to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease.

73
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What does Dolichos biflorus lectin do?

Agglutinates A1 cells.

74
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How do A1 cells compare to O cells in H substance?

A1 cells have less H substance than O cells.

75
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What is the definition of Bombay phenotype?

It lacks H antigen due to hh genotype.

76
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What antibodies do Bombay individuals usually have?

Anti-H, anti-A, and anti-B.

77
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What is the purpose of anti-A1 lectin?

To distinguish A1 from A2 and other A subgroups.

78
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What does the secretor gene allow?

It allows soluble ABH substances to be present in secretions.

79
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What are Lewis antigens?

They are adsorbed onto RBCs from plasma.

80
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What is the effect of the lele genotype?

Individuals do not produce Lea or Leb substances.

81
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What is the effect of the sese genotype?

Individuals are nonsecretors and do not secrete ABH substances into saliva.

82
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What are common examples of dosage-associated antibodies?

Rh, Kidd, Duffy, and MNS antibodies.

83
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What are common clinically significant warm antibodies?

Rh, Kell, Kidd, and Duffy antibodies.

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