RCP 370 FINALS!!!!!!!

studied byStudied by 47 people
5.0(1)
Get a hint
Hint

A 50-year-old patient has a heart rate by palpation of 120 bpm. How should this be interpreted?

1 / 147

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no one added any tags here yet for you.

148 Terms

1

A 50-year-old patient has a heart rate by palpation of 120 bpm. How should this be interpreted?

Tachycardia

New cards
2

A 50-year-old patient is said to have hypotension if her:

blood pressure is 85/55mmHg

New cards
3

In which of the following conditions would a dull percussion note most likely be heard?

  • Atelectasis

  • Pleural thickening

  • Consolidation

New cards
4

While assessing an unconscious patient, the respiratory therapist observes that the patient’s breathing becomes progressively faster and deeper and then progressively becomes slower and shallower. After that, there is a period of apnea before the cycle begins again. This breathing pattern would be identified as:

Cheyne-Stokes

New cards
5

Which of the following are benefits of pursed-lip breathing?

  • Stabilizes the airways

  • Reduces air trapping during exhalation

  • Improves breathing efficiency and gas mixing

New cards
6

The respiratory therapist is examining a patient in the medical ward and notes that the trachea is deviated to the right. Which of the following may be causing the tracheal deviation to the right?

  • Atelectasis of the right upper lobe

New cards
7

The respiratory therapist is performing palpation on a patient recently admitted to the medical ward. The therapist notes increased tactile fremitus over the right lung. Which of the following could most likely be the cause for this physical examination finding?

Right sided atelectasis

New cards
8

Moderate hypoxemia in adults is indicated with an SpO2 value between ________ and _________.

86%-90%

New cards
9

Adult normal temperature is define as:

98.6F

New cards
10

In a state of hyperthermia blood vessels: 

Vasodilate

New cards
11

A respiratory therapist is assessing a patient in the intensive care unit and notices a significant decrease in systolic blood pressure during inspiration. What condition is most commonly associated with this clinical finding?

Pulsus paradoxus

New cards
12

A respiratory rate of 25 bpm is define as: 

Tachypnea

New cards
13

A respiratory rate of 9 is define as:

bradypnea

New cards
14

A blood pressure of 145/95 is termed.

Hypertension

New cards
15

Clinical signs of hypothermia include all of the following except:

Hypertension

New cards
16

Which of the following is NOT a standard site for checking a pulse

Axillary

New cards
17

Which of the following breathing patterns is typically observed as a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Kussmauls respiration

New cards
18

Which of the following breathing patterns is characterized by alternating periods of rapid, deep respirations followed by irregular abrupt periods of apnea?

Biot respiration

New cards
19

Tripoding is defined as:

Leaning forward with arms and elbows supported on a table

New cards
20

Crepitus is defined as:

Crackling or popping sound/sensation palpated over the skin

New cards
21

Subcutaneous emphysema is best described as the presence of air or gas in which of the following locations?

Under the skin

New cards
22

Which of the following is considered a normal tidal volume for a healthy adult?

500mL

New cards
23

Which of the following is considered a symptom that a patient with pulmonary disease may complain about?

Feeling of breathlessness

New cards
24

Which of the following terms is used to describe shortness of breath in the reclining position?

orthopnea

New cards
25

What ventilatory pattern occurs when lung compliance decreases?

Rate generally increases while the tidal volume simultaneously decreases

New cards
26

As you assess the respiratory status of a patient you notice they have jugular venous distention. Which of the following conditions is most likely the cause of this clinical manifestation?

Congestive heart failure

New cards
27

What chemoreceptors respond primarily to low oxygen levels in the blood?

Peripheral

New cards
28

How does nasal flaring improve breathing?

Provides a larger orifice for gas to enter the lungs during inhalation

New cards
29

Which clinical manifestation is characterized by bulbous swelling of the terminal phalanges of the fingers and toes and is observed in patients with chronic respiratory disorders? 

Digital Clubbing

New cards
30

Which clinical manifestation is characterized by the presence of fluid in the tissues, primarily in the arms and ankles, and is commonly seen in patients with CHF, cor pulmonale, and hepatic cirrhosis?

Peripheral edema

New cards
31

Which clinical manifestation is characterized by the enlargement or distension of the jugular veins, often observed in patients with congestive heart failure, cor pulmonale, and other conditions causing increased central venous pressure?

Jugular venous distension

New cards
32

The term hemoptysis refers to:

blood or blood tinged sputum from the tracheobronchial tree

New cards
33

Which term is defined as the ease with which the elastic forces of the lungs accept a volume of inspired air?

Compliance

New cards
34

Which term is defined as the tendency of the structure to return to its original form after being stretched or recoil?

Elastance/elasticity

New cards
35

Which of the following terms describes a patient’s severe resistance to taking deep breaths due to pleuritic chest pain?

Splinting

New cards
36

Which of the following is not an objective sign of dyspnea?

Sensation of suffocation

New cards
37

How do each the following factors individually affect airway resistance?

Increases Airway Resistance

New cards
38

In a normal healthy adult the inspiratory-expiratory ratio is about ___________

1:2

New cards
39

After receiving IPPB treatment, a patient coughs up pink frothy secretions. Which of the following statements accurately describes the significance of this type of sputum production?

It indicates possible pulmonary edema

New cards
40

Upon entering a 75-year-old patient's room, the RT notices that the patient's face and hands are blue-gray. What is the most likely clinical manifestation of this finding?

Cyanosis due to hypoxemia

New cards
41

Which of the following best differentiates pleuritic chest pain from nonpleuritic chest pain?

Pleuritic chest pain is typically sharp and worsens with deep breathing or coughing, while nonpleuritic chest pain is a dull ache that is not affected by respiration

New cards
42

C(Cystic Fibrosis

B(Bronchitis)

A(Asthma)

B(bronchitis)

E(Emphysema)

New cards
43

The FRC, RV and TLC can be measured indirectly by all of the following methods EXCEPT:

Forced Vital Capacity

New cards
44

Which time period is most commonly used for the Forced Expiratory Volume Timed (FEVT) and serves as a key indicator of airway obstruction?

1 second

New cards
45

Which medical device is used to measure lung volumes and capacities?

Spirometer

New cards
46

What does the Forced Expiratory Flow 25%–75% (FEF25%–75%) measure, and which airways does it evaluate?

It measures the average flow rate of air during the middle portion of the FVC and evaluates the status of the small to medium-sized airways

New cards
47

During a spirometry evaluation, if the physician wants to assess the larger airways of a patient after the FVC maneuver, which parameter would be most appropriate?

Forced Expiratory Flow 25%-75%

New cards
48

Which pulmonary function test is used to measure the volume of air a patient can forcefully and rapidly exhale until empty after maximal inhalation?

Forced Vital Capacity (FVC

New cards
49

If a patient with periodic asthma symptoms has normal pulmonary function test results, what additional test can help confirm or rule out asthma? 

Methacholine Challenge Test

New cards
50

What does an FEV1/FVC ratio below 70% typically indicate in a pulmonary function test?

Obstructive Lung Disease

New cards
51

A 72-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with signs of severe respiratory distress. Upon assessment, the maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP) is measured at -18 cm H₂O. The patient also exhibits difficulty in coughing effectively and has abnormal blood gas values showing elevated carbon dioxide levels and decreased oxygen saturation. Based on the assessment findings, which of the following actions would this indicate?

  1. Begin ventilatory support to assist with breathing and ventilation

New cards
52

After performing a pulmonary function study, the RT finds that the results indicate obstructive lung disease and a decreased Diffusing Capacity of the Lung for Carbon Monoxide (DLCO). What is the best interpretation of these findings?

The patient has emphysema

New cards
53

In the normal healthy adult MIP is:

-80 to -100 cmH2O

New cards
54

A respiratory therapist needs to assess the muscle strength of a patient with myasthenia gravis. Which test should be used to check the patient’s respiratory muscle strength?

Maximum Inspiratory Pressure (MIP)

New cards
55

An asthmatic patient is asked to take a deep breath and then exhale quickly into a handheld device. Which of the following tests is used to assess the patient’s asthma control and airway function?

Methacholine Challenge Test

New cards
56

A patient with acute alveolar hyperventilation shows symptoms like dizziness and tingling. What is the most likely underlying cause of these symptoms?

Hypoxemia

New cards
57

A patient with a history of smoking and COPD presents in severe respiratory distress and acute bronchitis. Her previous baseline ABG was:

pH: 7.37
PaCO2: 62 mmHg
HCO3–: 35 mEq/L
PaO2: 56 mmHg

The current ABG results are:

pH: 7.18
PaCO2: 90 mmHg
HCO3–: 38 mEq/L
PaO2: 36 mmHg
Question:

What is the clinical interpretation of these ABG values (in addition to hypoxemia)?

Acute ventilatory failure superimposed on chronic ventilatory failure

New cards
58

How is most of the oxygen carried? 

Bound to hemoglobin

New cards
59

The normal range for PaO2/FiO2 ratio: 

350-450

New cards
60

A P/F ratio of < 200 indicates:

Poor Lung Function

New cards
61

Calculate total oxygen content (CaO2) of arterial blood with the following:

Hb = 15 g/dL

SaO2 = 96% = 0.96

PaO2 = 80 mmHg

Formula: CaO2 = (Hb × 1.34 × SaO2) + (PaO2 × 0.003)

19.5mL/dL of O2

New cards
62

Hypoxemia

Inadequate level of blood oxygenation

New cards
63

Hypoxia

Inadequate level of tissue oxygenation

New cards
64

Which condition involves blood flowing directly from the right side of the heart to the left side without passing through the lungs for oxygenation, and is approximately 3-5% of the cardiac output?

Anatomic Shunt

New cards
65

Calculate the alveolar oxygen pressure (PAO2) given the following parameters:

FiO2: 30%
Barometric Pressure (PB): 760 mmHg
Partial Pressure of Carbon Dioxide (PaCO2): 40 mmHg
Respiratory Quotient (RQ): 0.8

 

Formula: PAO2 = FiO2(PB - PH2O) - PaCO2 ÷ 0.8

163 mmHg

New cards
66

Clinically, the V̇O2 (oxygen consumption) decreases in response to which of the following?

  1. Exercise

  2. Hyperthermia

  3. Increased body size

  4. Peripheral shunting

Peripheral shunting

New cards
67

Which condition is characterized by an increased number of red blood cells in the blood due to chronic hypoxia, leading to a higher hemoglobin concentration and hematocrit levels?

Polycythemia

New cards
68

A patient has a PaO₂ of 90 mmHg while receiving 50% FiO₂. What is the P/F ratio for this patient?

180

New cards
69

What term describes the condition where the right side of the heart becomes strained and enlarged due to chronic lung problems, such as chronic hypoxia, causing it to work harder?

Cor pulmonale

New cards
70

Which term is used to describe a patient's state of awareness regarding person, place, and time, and can indicate conditions such as decreased perfusion state and cerebral hypoxia?

Sensorium

New cards
71

During a capillary refill test, what does it indicate if the nail beds remain white and do not turn pink within two seconds after pressure is released?

Inadequate perfusion

New cards
72

Normal cardiac output ranges from 4 to 8 liters per minute.

True

New cards
73

Which of the following are associated with extrinsic asthma?
1. Furred animal dander
2. Mold
3. Emotional stress
4. Cold air

  • furred animal dander

  • Mold

New cards
74

Which of the following factors are associated with intrinsic asthma?
1. Emotional stress
2. Cockroach allergen
3. GERD
4. Dust mites

  • Emotional stress

  • GERD

New cards
75

If a beta2-agonist agent and an anticholinergic agent were administered concurrently to a patient during an acute asthma episode, what result would be expected?

Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation will occur

New cards
76

During a chest assessment of a patient experiencing an asthmatic episode, which of the following findings is most likely?
1. Inverse I:E ratio
2. Decreased vocal fremitus
3. Increased vesicular breath sounds
4. Hyperresonant percussion note

  • Decreased vocal fremitus

  • Hyperresonant percussion note

New cards
77

Which of the following ABG values would be consistent with ventilatory failure with hypoxemia in a patient with severe status asthmaticus?
1. Increased PaCO2
2. Decreased PaO2
3. Increased pH
4. Decreased pH

  • Increased PaCO2

  • Decreased PaO2

  • Decreased pH

New cards
78

A sputum sample from a patient has been sent to the laboratory for analysis. Which of the following findings could help confirm the diagnosis of extrinsic asthma?

Increased IgE level

New cards
79

What findings on a chest radiograph would be expected during a prolonged asthma episode?
1. Depressed diaphragm
2. Increased anterior-posterior diameter
3. Asymmetric lung inflation
4. Translucent lung fields

  • Depressed diaphragm

  • Increased anterior-posterior diameter

  • Translucent lung fields

New cards
80

What is the name for the microscopic structures formed from the breakdown of eosinophils in allergic asthma?

  • Charcot-Leyden crystals

New cards
81

Which of the following recurrent symptoms are commonly associated with asthma?
1. Cough
2. Chest tightness
3. Fever
4. Wheeze

  • Cough

  • Chest tighness

  • Wheeze

New cards
82

What is the term for an inspiratory fall in systolic blood pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg?

  • Pulsus paradoxus

New cards
83

A fractional concentration of exhaled nitric oxide level greater than _____ ppb is an indication of airway inflammation requiring controller medication increase.

  • 50

New cards
84

What are anatomical alterations of the lungs in the asthma population?

1. Smooth muscle constriction
2. Excessive mucus production
3. Whitish bronchial secretions
4. Hyperinflation
5. Mucus plugging

  • all listedont

New cards
85

Controller medications

Reliever medications

Add-on-therapies

  • Decrease airway inflammation

  • Provide as needed relief of asthma symptoms, prevention of exercise induced bronchoconstriction

  • For severe asthma, tiotropium,

New cards
86

Define status asthmaticus.

Asthma episode that does not respond to conventional pharmacologic therapy.

New cards
87

For asthma the evidence of reversible airflow limitation can be confirmed when FEV1 is:

FEV1 > 12% (or 200 ml) after inhaling a bronchodilator

New cards
88

The presence of allergic asthma can be assessed with all of the following except:

ABG

New cards
89

During an asthma episode, the smooth muscles of the bronchi may hypertrophy as much as:

Three times normal thickness

New cards
90

After the inhalation of a bronchodilator, what percentage increase in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is typically required to demonstrate reversible airflow limitation consistent with asthma?

20% or greater

New cards
91

How long must asthma be controlled before the treatment regimen can be stepped down, with the aim of establishing the lowest step and dose of treatment that maintains control?

At least 3 months

New cards
92

Which of the following have gained a widespread acceptance for assessing and monitoring a patient’s airflow limitation?

1. PEFR
2. FEF200–1200
3. FEV1
4. FEV1/FVC ratio

  • PEFR

  • FEV1

  • FEV1/FVC ratio

New cards
93

A patient’s clinical history presents the following: Daytime asthma symptoms more than twice per week, no limitation in activities, no nocturnal symptoms or awakening, the need for reliever/rescue medications once per week, and normal PEFR and FEV1. Which of the following would best classify this patient's level of asthma control?

Partially controlled

New cards
94

___________ is a condition defined by a persistent cough with sputum production lasting for at least 3 months over two consecutive years.

Chronic bronchitis

New cards
95

A condition defined by the weakening and permanent enlargement of air spaces beyond the terminal bronchioles, along with the destruction of alveolar walls, is called __________

Emphysema

New cards
96

A FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70% is used to confirm the diagnosis of __________.

Obstructive lung disorder

New cards
97

What term is used to describe the presence of two or more diseases or medical conditions occurring simultaneously?

Comorbidities

New cards
98

During a pulmonary function test (PFT), the respiratory therapist notes that both functional residual capacity (FRC) and residual volume (RV) are increased. This finding is most indicative of:

Air trapping

New cards
99

Which clinical manifestation, often associated with hyperinflation of the lungs, is commonly seen in patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

Barrel chest

New cards
100

Upon examining the sputum of a COPD patient, you observe that it is copious and purulent. This finding is most indicative of which disease process?

chronic. bronchitis

New cards

Explore top notes

note Note
studied byStudied by 32 people
... ago
5.0(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 9 people
... ago
5.0(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 9 people
... ago
5.0(1)
Imperialism Rise in Nationalism • During the French and Industrial Revolution, nationalism continued to inspire nations to increase their political and economic power. • Nationalism became the ideal force in the political, economic, and cultural life in the world, becoming the first universal ideology-organizing all people into a nation state. Nationalism Defined • The strong belief that the interest of a particular nation-state is of primary importance. o Nation-State – a state where the vast majority shares the same culture and is conscious of it. It is an ideal in which cultural boundaries match up with political ones. • As an ideology, it is based on the idea that the individual’s loyalty and devotion to the nation-state surpass other individual/group interests. • Exalting one nation’s belief above all others and placing primary emphasis on promotion of its culture and interests, excluding the interests of others. Changing the World through a Nationalistic Vision • The French Revolution significantly changed the political world and how countries govern. • The Industrial Revolution significantly changed the economic world. • The Age of Imperialism (1870-1914) dramatically changed the political, economic, and social world. What is Imperialism? • Imperialism- The policy of extending the rule of authority of an empire or nation over foreign countries, or of acquiring and holding colonies and dependencies. Power and influence are done through diplomacy or military force. Reasons for Imperialism • There are 5 main motives for empires to seek to expand their rule over other countries or territories: 1. Exploratory • Imperial nations wanted to explore territory unknown to them. • The main purpose for this exploration of new lands was for resource acquisition, medical or scientific research. o Charles Darwin • Other reasons: o Cartography (map making) o Adventure 2. Ethnocentric • Europeans acted on the concept of ethnocentrism o Ethnocentrism- the belief that one race or nation is superior to others. • Ethnocentrism developed out of Charles Darwin’s “survival of the fittest” theory. Philosophers used the theory to explain why there were superior races and inferior races. o This became known as Social Darwinism. • Most imperial nations believed that their cultural values or beliefs were superior to other nations or groups. • Believed imperial conquest would bring successful culture to inferior people. 3. Religious • Imperial expansion promoted a religious movement of people setting out to convert new members of conquered territories. • With the belief that Christianity was superior, missionaries believed it was their duty to spread Christianity to the world. • Christian missionaries established churches, and in doing so, they spread Western culture values as well. • Typically, missionaries spread the imperial nation's language through education and religious interactions. 4. Political • Patriotism and Nationalism helped spur our imperial growth, thus creating competition against other supremacies. • It was a matter of national pride, respect, and security. • Furthermore, European rivalry spurred nations for imperial conquest. Since land equaled power, the more land a country could acquire the more prestige they could wield across the globe. • Empires wanted strategic territory to ensure access for their navies and armies around the world. • The empire believed they must expand, thus they needed to be defended. 5. Economic • With the Industrial Revolution taking place during the same time, governments and private companies contributed to find ways to maximize profits. • Imperialized countries provided European factories and markets with natural resources (old and new) to manufacture products. • Trading posts were strategically placed around imperialized countries to maximize and increase profits. o Such places as the Suez Canal in Egypt which was controlled by the British provided strategic choke hold over many European powers. o Imperial powers competed over the best potential locations for resources, markets, and trade. History of Imperialism • Ancient Imperialism 600 BCE-500 CE o Roman Empire, Ancient China, Greek Empire, Persian Empire, Babylonian Empire. • Middle Age Imperialism (Age of Colonialism-1400-1800s) o Great Britain, Spain, Portugal, France, Netherlands (Dutch), Russia. • Age of Imperialism 1870-1914 o Great Britain, Spain, Portugal, France, Germany, Belgium, Italy, Japan, United States, Ottoman Empire, Russia. • Current Imperialism...? o U.S. Military intervention (i.e. Middle East) o Russia’s Invasion of Ukraine. Imperialism Colonialism • Refers to political or economic control, either legally or illegally. • Refers to where one nation assumes control over the other. • Creating an empire, expanding into neighboring regions and expanding the dominance far outside its borders. • Where a country conquers and rules over other regions for exploiting resources from the conquered country for the conqueror's benefit. • Foreign government controls/governs a territory without significant settlement. • Foreign government controls/governs the territory from within the land being colonized. • Little to no new settlement established on fresh territory. • Movement to settle to fresh territory. Age of Colonialism WHEN? • Started around the late 1400s and ended around the late 1700s/early 1800s. WHY? • Primary Reason: European countries, wished to find a direct trade route to Asia (China & India) and the East Indies. o Quicker and relatively more effective than land routes over Asia. • Secondary Reason: Empire expansion (land power) WHO? • Countries involved: Great Britain, France, Spain, the Dutch & Portugal. • Individuals’ knowns as Mercantilists believed that maintaining imperialized territory and colonizing the region could serve as a source of wealth, while personal motives by rulers, explorers, and missionaries could therefore promote their own agenda. o This agenda being “Glory, God and Gold”. Mercantilism • Mercantilism was a popular and main economic system for many European nations during the 16th to 18th centuries. • The main goal was to increase a nation’s wealth by promoting government rule of a nation’s economy for the purpose of enhancing state power at the expense of rival national power. • It was the economic counterpart of political absolutism. Why did mercantilists want colonies? • Mercantilists believed that a country must have an excess of exports over imports. • By colonizing territory, it provided the nation with indispensable wealth of precious raw materials. • Therefore, the claimed territory served as a market and supplier of raw materials for the mother country. Which, in time, provided an excess of exports for the nation and thus created wealth. o Development of Trading Companies to support this economic system. Hudson Bay Company – (1670). Controlled primarily North America. o Dutch East Indie Trading Company (1682) o East Indian Trading Company (1600) o Royal African Trade Company (1672) WHERE? • European nations begun to colonize the America, India and the East Indies to create a direct trade route. • Great Britain was the leading power in India, Australia and North America, South Africa. • Spain colonized central and South America. • French held Louisiana, coastal land of Africa and French Guinea. • The Dutch built an empire in the East Indies. • The Portuguese was able to take control of present-day Brazil and the southern tip of South America and Japan. Age of Colonialism • As countries started to imperialize these regions, eventually the concept of colonization took hold: • This is what makes the Age of Colonialism extremely different! End of Colonialism • By 1800, colonialism became less popular • Why? o Revolutions (Spain, France & American) o The Napoleonic Wars o Struggle for nationalism and democracy. o Exhausted all money and energy to supervise their colonies. Waiting to wake again • Imperialism would stay quiet for close to 50 years before Great Britain and France’s economies revitalized. • The outbreak of the Industrial Revolution only encouraged and revitalized European nations to begin their conquest for new territory and resources. Age of Imperialism THE SCRAMBLE FOR AFRICA 1870-1914 Conditions Prior to Imperialism of Africa  European interest in exploiting Africa was minimal.  Their economic interests & profit in Africa primarily came through coastal trade that took place during the 1500-1700s.  The slave trade became the main source of European profit.  Furthermore, disease, political instability, lack of transportation and unpredictable climate all discouraged Europeans from seeking territory. Slave Trade & the Trans-Atlantic Slave Voyages  Forced labor was not uncommon during the 13-17th Centuries. Africans and Europeans had been trading goods and people across the Mediteranea for centuries.  This all changed from 1526 to 1867, as a new system of slavery was introduced that became highly “commercialized, racialized and inherited”  By 1690, the America and West Indies saw approximately 30,000 African people shipped from Africa. A century later, that number grew to 85,000 people per year.  By 1867, approximately 12.5 million people (about twice the population of Arizona) left Africa in a slave ship. What Changed? 1. End of the Slave Trade- Left a need for trade between Europe and Africa. 2. Innovation in technology- The steam engine and iron hulled boats allowed Europe 3. Discovery of new raw materials- Explorers located vast raw materials and resources and this only spurred imperialism with Europe in the wake of the Industrial Revolution. 4. Politics- Unification of Germany and Italy left little room to expand in Europe. Germany and Italy both needed raw materials to “catch up” with Britain and France so they looked to Africa. The Scramble for Africa  The scramble started in 1870.  Although some coastal land had previously been acquired before 1870, the need for territory quickly accelerated as European countries looked t get deeper into Africa.  Within 20 years, nearly all continents were placed under imperialistic rule. Who was Involved?  Great Britain  France  Germany  Italy  Portugal  Belgium  Spain (kind) Violent Affairs  Violence broke out multiple times when European nations looked to claim the same territory.  Germ Chancellor. Otto van Bismarck. Attempted to avert the possibility of violence against the European powers.  In 1884, Bismarck organized a conference in Berlin for the European nations. The Berlin Conference (1884-85)  The conference looked to set ground rules for future annexation of African territory by European Nations.  Annexation is the forcible acquisition and assertion of legal title over one state’s territory by another state, usually following military occupation of the territory.  From a distant perspective, it looked like it would reduce tensions among European nations and avert war.  At the heart of the meeting, these European countries negotiated their claims to African territory, made it official and then mapped their regions.  Furthermore, the leaders agreed to allow free trade among imperialized territory and some homework for negotiating future European claims in Africa was established. Further Path  After the conference, european powers continued to expand their claims in Africa so that by 1900. 90% of the African territory had been claimed. A Turn towards Colonization?  Upon the imperialization of African territory, European nations and little interest in African land unless it produced economic wealth.  Therefore, European governments put little effort and expertise into these imperialized regions.  In most cases, this emat a form of indirect rule. Thus, governing the natin without sufficient settlement and government from within the mother country. Some Exceptions  There were some exemptions through in Africa as colonization was a necessary for some regions i n Africa.  Some regions where diamonds and gold were present. Government looked to protectorate the regions and establish rule and settlement in the regions.  Protectorates: A state controlled and protected by another state for defense against aggression and other law violations. Would  Some examples include South Africa, Botswana, Zimbabwe and Congo. Conclusion  Although it may appear that the Berlin Conference averted war amid the African Scramble, imperialism eventually brought the world into worldwide conflict.  With the continued desire to create an empire by European nations. World War 1 would break out which can be linked to this quest at imperialism.
note Note
studied byStudied by 10 people
... ago
4.5(2)
note Note
studied byStudied by 29 people
... ago
4.0(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 91 people
... ago
5.0(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 39 people
... ago
5.0(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 54 people
... ago
5.0(2)

Explore top flashcards

flashcards Flashcard (487)
studied byStudied by 21 people
... ago
5.0(3)
flashcards Flashcard (45)
studied byStudied by 1 person
... ago
5.0(1)
flashcards Flashcard (51)
studied byStudied by 55 people
... ago
5.0(1)
flashcards Flashcard (54)
studied byStudied by 2 people
... ago
5.0(1)
flashcards Flashcard (22)
studied byStudied by 268 people
... ago
5.0(10)
flashcards Flashcard (24)
studied byStudied by 48 people
... ago
5.0(2)
flashcards Flashcard (49)
studied byStudied by 2 people
... ago
5.0(1)
flashcards Flashcard (45)
studied byStudied by 12 people
... ago
5.0(1)
robot