VTNE Book- Part 1

Which of the following statements defines regional anesthesia?

a. Loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthethic or other agent in proximity to sensory nerves

b. Loss of sensation in a small area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic agent in proximity to the area of interest

c. Loss of sensation in a localized area produced by administration of a local anesthetic directly to a body surface or to a surgical or traumatic wound

d. A drug-induced sleep-like state that impairs the ability of the patient to respond appropriately to stimuli

a. Loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthethic or other agent in proximity to sensory nerves

Larger areas can be targeted by use of regional anesthesia, which refers to a loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic or other agent in proximity to sensory nerves. Local anesthesia refers to loss of sensation in a small area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic agent in proximity to the area of interest. Infiltration of local anesthetic into the tissues surrounding a small tumor to facilitate removal is an example of local anesthesia. Topical anesthesia is the loss of sensation of a localized area produced by administration of a local anesthetic directly to a body surface or to a surgical or traumatic wound. Hypnosis is a drug-induced sleep-like state that impairs the ability of the patient to respond appropriately to stimuli.

If an oxygen flowmeter uses a ball for oxygen readings, where is the reading taken from to determine flow of oxygen in the system?

a. The top of the ball

b. The center of the ball

c. The bottom of the ball

d. None of the above

b. The center of the ball

If a ball is used instead of a bobbin to read oxygen flow rate through the system, the gas flow is read from the center of the ball. The top of the ball would give an erroneous reading that is too high, and the bottom would give a reading that is too low.

Which of the following statements defines balanced anesthesia?

a. The administration of two or more agents in equal volume

b. Administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were administered alone

c. General anesthesia in which the patient's physiological status remains stable

d. The administration of a local and general anesthetic concurrently

b. Administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were administered alone

Balanced anesthesia is defined as the administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were given alone. Balanced anesthesia maximizes benefits, minimizes adverse effects, and gives the anesthetist the ability to produce anesthesia with the degree of CNS depression, muscle relaxation, analgesia, and immobilization appropriate for the patient and the procedure. General anesthesia does not always produce balanced anesthesia; the same applies when a local anesthesia is added.

Which of the following terms refers to a loss of sensation in a small area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic?

a. Sedation

b. General anesthesia

c. Surgical anesthesia

d. Local anesthesia

d. Local anesthesia

Local anesthesia is a loss of sensation in a small area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic. Sedation is a drug-induced CNS depression and drowsiness that vary in intensity from light to deep. Surgical anesthesia refers to the specific stage within general anesthesia in which there is a sufficient degree of analgesia and muscle relaxation to allow surgery to be performed without patient pain or movement.

Which of these statements regarding anesthesia is incorrect?

a. Anesthetic agents have wide therapeutic indices.

b. There is always a risk to patient safety when anesthetics are administered.

c. Most anesthetics cause significant changes in cardiopulmonary function.

d. All statements are false.

a. Anesthetic agents have wide therapeutic indices.

Most anesthetic agents have a very narrow therapeutic index and the consequences of a calculation or administration error may be serious. Therefore, care and attention to detail are critical when doses are calculated and rates of administration are adjusted.

Which of the following opioids is preferable in a patient undergoing a painful ophthalmic procedure?

a. Morphine

b. Methadone

c. Diazepam

d. Midazolam

d. Midazolam

Which of the following drugs is classified as an opioid?

a. Amantadine

b. Carprofen

c. Ketamine

d. Butorphanol

d. Butorphanol

Physical examinations are an important step when assessing the patient's risk factor. Which of the following statements is incorrect because it refers to PE findings?

a. Dehydration increases the risk for hypotension.

b. Anemia predisposes the patient to hypoxemia.

c. Patients with bruising may be at higher risk of potentially life-threatening intraoperative and

postoperative bleeding

d. A dog with a body condition score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score of 5/9

d. A dog with a body condition score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score of 5/9

When a capnometer is combined with a continuous graphical display, the monitoring device is referred to as a:

a. Capnometer

b. Capnograph

c. Pulse oximeter

d. Capillary refill time

b. Capnograph

Using a Doppler for blood pressure measurement will yield which of the following readings?

a. Systolic

b. Mean

c. Diastolic

d. All of the above

a. Systolic

When using the emergency oxygen flush valve, what step must the technician also do simultaneously?

a. Disconnect the patient from the breathing circuit to avoid barotrauma.

b. Disconnect the oxygen supply.

c. Close the pop-off valve.

d. Turn off the isoflurane.

c. Close the pop-off valve.

You have a patient that looks asleep, will not respond to voice, but will respond to pain. Which of the following would describe the animal's level of consciousness?

a. Lethargic

b. Obtunded

c. Stuporous

d. Comatose

Which of the following is used for direct blood pressure monitoring?

a. Cardell

b. Dinamap

c. Arterial catheter

d. Doppler

c. Arterial catheter

Which of the following products listed would be considered a colloid solution?

a. Lactated Ringer's solution

b. Normal saline solution

c. Hetastarch

d. 5% dextrose

What is the function of a vaporizer?

a. To regulate flow of oxygen into the anesthetic system

b. To deliver safe and effective levels of anesthetic gas

c. To measure the pressure of gas in the system

d. All of the above

b. To deliver safe and effective levels of anesthetic gas

What is the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification system rating for a patient that is anemic or moderately dehydrated?

a. Class P1

b. Class P2

c. Class P3

d. Class P4

Which of the following fluids listed is an example of a colloid?

a. Lactated Ringer's

b. Normosol-R

c. Whole blood

d. Hypertonic saline

You have a calm canine patient that must be anesthetized. Which of the following conditions could present the greatest risk to anesthesia?

a. Wheezing while breathing

b. Lethargy

c. Temperature of 104.1 F

d. Sinus arrhythmia

Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has a very low boiling point and therefore has to be contained within an electrically heated chamber?

a. Halothane

b. Desflurane

c. Isoflurane

d. Sevoflurane

Which of the following patients would be of greatest concern regarding the patent airway when anesthesia is being considered?

a. Brachiocephalic breeds

b. Exotic breeds

c. Cats and horses

d. Sight hounds

a. Brachiocephalic breeds

Which of the following is often used to calculate a patient's tidal volume?

a. 100 mL/kg

b. 200 mL/kg

c. 1-2 mL/kg

d. 10-20 mL/kg

d. 10-20 mL/kg

The width of the blood pressure cuff in a dog should be what percentage of the circumference of the leg?

a. 40%

b. 50%

c. 25%

d. 30%

a. 40%

What does the term minute volume mean?

a. The volume of anesthetic agent used in 1 min.

b. The flow of oxygen through the system in 1 min.

c. The sum of all gas volumes exhaled in 1 min.

d. The volume of gas exhaled in one breath.

Placement of IV catheters is just as critical as the techniques used to administer medications. Which of the following actions should not be done?

a. Choose an administration set with an injection port

b. Provide all IV drugs slowly unless told otherwise

c. Always follow IV injections through a catheter with sterile saline flush

d. Choose a catheter that is small in diameter to minimize the risk of bleeding

What is the main component of soda lime (a substance used to absorb carbon dioxide from the breathing system)?

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Potassium hydroxide

c. Calcium hydroxide

d. Baking soda

Blood pressure cuff placement is common in all of the following areas except the:

a. Tail

b. Forelimb

c. Hindlimb

d. Foot

d. Foot

What is the name given to the opening opposite the bevel of the endotracheal tube?

a. Pilot hole

b. Accessory opening

c. Murphy eye

d. Miller opening

c. Murphy eye

The body of an adult animal contains a large amount of fluid. Which statement about body fluids is incorrect?

a. About 40% of the body weight is water.

b. About two thirds of the total body water resides inside the cells.

c. Blood plasma makes up about 5% of the total body weight.

d. Dogs have a larger total blood volume than cats

A patient is admitted to the hospital with moderate dehydration. The veterinarian has asked that the patient be rehydrated. Which of the following solutions would be considered ideal for rehydration?

a. Colloids

b. Hypertonic saline

c. Isotonic crystalloids

d. 50% dextrose

Which of the following is a main disadvantage for using a chamber to induce anesthesia?

a. Patient struggling causes increased catecholamines.

b. Increased risk of cardiac arrhythmias

c. Staff exposure to harmful waste anesthetic gases

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

All of the following factors would be indicators for placing a patient on a controlled ventilator, except:

a. An open thorax thoracotomy or chest wall trauma.

b. Neuromuscular blockade.

c. Pneumothorax.

d. Intestinal foreign body.

d. Intestinal foreign body.

Which of the following administration rates describes that of a microdrip set?

a. 10 gtt/mL

b. 10 - 15 gtt/mL

c. 20 - 60 gtt/mL

d. 60 gtt/mL

d. 60 gtt/mL

All of the following are clinical signs used to evaluate the depth of anesthesia except:

a. Eye position

b. Ear pinch

c. Jaw tone

d. Palpebral reflex

b. Ear pinch

All of the following statements regarding fluid infusion rates are false except:

a. Standard shock doses of fluids are about the same as doses used during routine surgery.

b. Surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids.

c. Crystalloids are generally given at lower administration rates than colloids.

d. Hypertonic saline is administered in large volumes to patients in shock

What is the function of an esophageal stethoscope?

a. Cardiac and lung auscultation via the esophagus

b. Temperature readings via the esophagus

c. Measuring exhaled end tidal carbon dioxide

d. Measuring central venous pressure

a. Cardiac and lung auscultation via the esophagus

Which of the following monitoring parameters is used for the measurement and numerical display of the carbon dioxide concentration in the respiratory gas?

a. Electrocardiogram

b. Capnometry

c. Pulse oximeter

d. Capillary refill time

b. Capnometry

Fluid overload can carry serious consequences. All of the following clinical signs are consistent with that of fluid overload except:

a. Ocular and nasal discharge

b. Hypotension

c. Increased lung sounds and respiratory rate

d. Dyspnea

Which of the following describes capnometers where the measuring chambers are placed directly in the airway and the measurement signal is generated?

a. Sidestream capnometer

b. Invasive capnometer

c. Mainstream capnometer

d Endstream capnometer

c. Mainstream capnometer

Which of the following locations would be acceptable for placement of a pulse oximeter probe?

a. Tongue

b. Prepuce

c. Nonpigmented toe

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

In the equine patient, which heart rhythm is not normal?

a. Normal sinus rhythm

b. Sinus arrhythmia

c. Second-degree AV block

d. Third-degree AV block

Which of the following blood pressure measuring techniques is considered "gold standard" in terms of accurate measurements?

a. Invasive blood pressure measurements

b. Doppler blood pressure measurements

c. Oscillometric blood pressure measurements

d. All of the above

a. Invasive blood pressure measurements

Which of the following terms describes the volume of gas exhaled in one breath?

a. Tidal volume

b. Minute volume

c. Dead space volume

d. Oxygen flow rate

a. Tidal volume

What combination of drugs is in a neuroleptanalgesic cocktail?

a. An opioid and an anticholinergic

b. An anticholinergic and a tranquilizer

c. An opioid and a tranquilizer

d. An anticholinergic and a benzodiazepine

Where is the intravenous catheter placed for measurement of central venous pressures?

a. Vena cava

b. Right atrium

c. Left ventricle

d. Cephalic vein

Which of the following drugs is a phenothiazine tranquilizer most commonly used as a premedication in small animal practice?

a. Acepromazine

b. Midazolam

c. Diazepam

d. Morphine

a. Acepromazine

Where does atropine block the release of acetylcholine?

a. Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system

b. Nicotinic receptors of the parasympathetic system

c. Muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic system

d. Nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic system

All of the following are common side effects of acepromazine except:

a. Peripheral vasodilation

b. Decrease in body temperature

c. Increase in body temperature

d. Decrease in overall blood pressure

Which of the following is an example of an alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist?

a. Dexmedetomidine

b. Xylazine

c. Medetomidine

d. All of the above

a. Dexmedetomidine

How is it best to treat bradycardia induced by dexmedetomidine?

a. Atropine

b. Naloxone

c. Epinephrine

d. Atipamezole

d. Atipamezole

Which of the following medications will reverse the effects of mu opioids?

a. Atipamezole

b. Naloxone

c. Atropine

d. Yohimbine

b. Naloxone

What class of drugs is not only used as a premedicant, but also as a first-line intervention for animals presenting in status epilepticus?

a. Opioids

b. Benzodiazepines

c. Alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist

d. Antibiotics

Of the following drugs listed, which one does not have analgesic properties?

a. Dexmedetomidine

b. Morphine

c. Methadone

d. Diazepam

What is the indication for induction with etomidate in dogs?

a. Severe cardiac disease

b. Renal failure

c. Orthopedic disease

d. Pediatric (younger than 4 weeks)

a. Severe cardiac disease

Which of the following represents how a drug can be eliminated from the body?

a. Urine excretion

b. Digestion

c. Biotransformation

d. Metabolized

a. Urine excretion

Which of the following opioids would be the best choice as a premedication in a patient with moderate to severe Pain?

a. Butorphanol

b. Diazepam

c. Methadone

d. Naloxone

Which of the following is a dissociative anesthetic?

a. Thiopental sodium

b. Pentobarbital sodium

c. Ketamine hydrochloride

d. Propofol

What should the vaporizer be set at to maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia?

a. 0.5 x MAC

b. 1 x MAC

c. 1.5 x MAC

d. 2 x MAC

c. 1.5 x MAC

Which of the following is considered a reversal drug for opioid agonist effects at all receptors?

a. Butorphanol

b. Naloxone hydrochloride

c. Morphine

b. Naloxone hydrochloride

How do local anesthetic drugs function as analgesics?

a. By reducing inflammation

b. By blocking impulse conduction in nerve fibers

c. By facilitating the breakdown of arachidonic acid

d. By acting as an antipyretic

b. By blocking impulse conduction in nerve fibers

What can be done to avoid transient apnea from the drug propofol?

a. Administer by infusion only

b. Premedicate with opioids

c. Administer intravenously only

d. Titrate this drug in several boluses

c. Administer intravenously only

What is the morphology of Vibrio spp. bacteria?

a. Bacillus

b. Coccus

c. Spirochete

d. Coccobacillus

All of the following are important functions of bacterial fimbriae, except:

a. Attachment

b. Locomotion

c. Ion transport

d. Antibiotic resistance

Bacterial endospores are:

a. Resistant to heat and desiccation

b. A form of asexual reproduction

c. A consequence of mating

d. Highly susceptible to antiseptics

Blood levels of total bilirubin will not be a significant finding in:

a. Hepatocellular damage

b. Bile duct injury or obstruction

c. Hemolytic disorders

d. Acute pancreatitis

A bacterial genus can best be described as:

a. Composed of one or more species

b. Composed of classes

c. Composed of families

d. Belonging to a species

An iodine scrub on skin would result in:

a. Antisepsis

b. Disinfection

c. Fumigation

d. Sterilization

Which of the following would be a prenatal route of pathogen transmission?

a. Transfusion

b. Contaminated food

c. Droplet infection

d. Direct contact

Most bacteria grow best at a pH of:

a. 1

b. 3

c. 9

d. 7

Which of the following is an important function of bacterial flagella?

a. Attachment

b. Locomotion

c. DNA replication

d. Ion transport

Which parasite only uses the cat and its definitive host?

a. Toxoplasma gondii

b. Giardia Lamblia

c. Isopora rivolta

d. Balantidium coli

a. Toxoplasma gondii

_____ is the temperature that must be reached and maintained for 13 minutes in a steam autoclave to destroy microorganisms?

a. 110 C

b. 121 C

c. 170 C

d. 240 C

With which of the following is the humoral immune system involved?

a. Monocytes

b. B cells

c. T cells

d. Erythrocytes

Which of the following is a lentivirus?

a. Coronavirus

b. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)

c. Herpes virus

d. Parvovirus

Which of the following is not a method of culturing animal viruses?

a. Laboratory animal inoculation

b. Cell culture

c. Agar plate inoculation

d. Embryonate egg inoculation

What immunoglobulin is usually present in the greatest quantity?

a. IgA

b. IgD

c. IgE

d. IgG

Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate the function of the:

a. Kidneys

b. Liver

c. Pancreas

d. Bile ducts

Phagocytes are a type of:

a. Red blood cell

b. White blood cell

c. Platelet

d. Antibody

A hospital-acquired disease is known as:

a. Endemic

b. Nosocomial

c. Ergasteric

d. Iatrogenic

Leukopenia is defined as:

a. A decrease in white blood cells

b. An increase in white blood cells

c. A bone marrow disease

d. A type of blood cancer

What laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein?

a. Glucose

b. SGTP (ALT)

c. Creatinine

d. BUN

The function of hemolysis is to:

a. Coagulate blood

b. Break down fibrin

c. Destroy red blood cells

d. Indicate a viral infection

Nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include:

a. The amount of carbohydrate ingested

b. The amount of protein ingested

c. Insufficient insulin

d. Insufficient ADH

A decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing:

a. Chronic lover disease

b. A carnivorous diet

c. Gastroenteritis

d. A vegetarian diet

To what color does "icteric serum" refer?

a. Yellow

b. Red

c. Brown

d. Green

a. Yellow

What color are blood collection tubes that contain heparin?

a. Purple

b. Green

c. Blue

d. Gray

b. Green

Which of the following substances is used to evaluate kidney filtration and function, is excreted, and the in reabsorbed?

a. Urea

b. Creatinine

c. Glucose

d. Sodium

b. Creatinine

With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient, which of the following would likely appear on a urinalysis and CBC?

a. Increased urine SG and increased PCV

b. Increased urine SG and decreased PCV

c. Decreased urine SG and decreased PCV

d. Decreased urine SG and increased PCV

Water deprivation test should never be performed on patients with:

a. Hich MCV

b. Suspected sufficient ADH

c. Dehydration

d. Suspected tubular malfunction

Glycosuria exists:

a. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose

b. When blood glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose

c. When urine glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose

d. When urine glucose levels are higher than the serum threshold for absorption of glucose

Horses typically have higher ___ values than other species.

a. AST

b. ALP

c. ALT

d. GGT

What blood chemistry test should be used to measure cholangiocyte damage?

a. ALKP

b. AST

c.ALT

d. GGT

Which method is commonly used to measure electrolytes?

a. Ion-specific electrodes

b. Refractometry

c. Adsorption

d. Enzymatic digestion

A test that can be performed to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is:

a. LH

b. Cortisol

c. Bile acids

d. T4

When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within ___ minutes, or refrigeration is required.

a. 10

b. 20

c. 30

d. 40

For cytological evaluation of urine, which of the following conditions should be observed?

a. The specimen should be refrigerated as soon as possible

b. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible

c. The specimen may sit at room temperature for <6 hours

d. The specimen may frozen for later analysis

the average urine specific gravity of a healthy adult dog is ____

a. 1.025

b. 1.035

c. 1.04

d. 1.045

the average urine specific gravity for a healthy cat is:

a. 1.025

b. 1.03

c. 1.035

d. 1.04

Which of the following tests is not included in a routine CBC?

a. Total WBC count

b. Differential WBC count

c. Total protein

d. Reticulocyte count

d. Reticulocyte count

Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition?

a. Liver disease

b. Urinary tract infection

c. Renal failure

d. Diabetes mellitus

Hoover, a canine patient, was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 2 weeks earlier and was placed on a course of amoxicillin. The veterinarian asked that he return for a recheck to ensure the infection has resolved. The collection method of choice in this patient would be"

a. Catheterization

b. Free catch

c. Cystocentesis

d. Manual expression