Week 2 Lesson 13: Structure and function of hind limb joints and ligaments

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102 Terms

1
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What are the four major joints associated with the hindlimb?

Sacroiliac, hip, stifle, and tarsal joints.

2
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What are the two primary classifications of synovial joints based on complexity?

Simple and compound.

3
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What is a "ginglymus" joint?

A functional type of joint also known as a hinge joint.

4
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What functional type of joint is the coxofemoral joint?

Spheroidal or ball and socket.

5
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What functional joint type is the pastern joint?

Saddle joint.

6
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What is the functional classification of the fetlock joint?

Hinge joint.

7
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What type of joint is the tarsocrural joint in horses?

Cochlear joint.

8
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What is the synovial classification of the stifle joint?

Composite, condylar joint.

9
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How is a "simple" joint defined?

It involves only two articulating bones.

10
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How is a "compound" joint defined?

It involves more than two articulating bones.

11
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What bones form the articular surface of the SI joint?

The wing of the ilium and the wing of the sacrum.

12
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What is the dual nature of the SI joint's composition?

It has both synovial and fibrocartilaginous components.

13
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Which ligaments reinforce the SI joint capsule?

The dorsal, ventral, and interosseous sacroiliac ligaments.

14
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What is the broad sacrotuberous ligament's function in ungulates?

It forms the lateral wall of the pelvis.

15
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What is the primary role of the SI joint regarding weight?

It transmits the weight of the trunk to the hindlimbs.

16
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Does the SI joint prioritize mobility or stability?

Stability.

17
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How does the pelvis appear in a horse with a weak SI connection?

The pelvis tilts forward.

18
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What can SI damage cause in a horse's pelvic symmetry?

A distorted pelvis.

19
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What is a clinical sign of SI joint issues in canines on a radiograph?

The wings of the ilium appearing out of place.

20
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What is the primary function of the sacrotuberous ligament's support mechanism?

It acts as a support for the pelvic floor.

21
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What bones articulate to form the hip joint?

The head of the femur and the acetabulum.

22
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What structure deepens the acetabulum in ungulates?

The labrum acetabulare (fibrocartilage lip).

23
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What ligament bridges the acetabular notch?

The transverse acetabular ligament.

24
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What are the two names for the ligament attaching the femoral head to the acetabular fossa?

Ligament of the head of the femur or round ligament.

25
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Where does the ligament of the head of the femur insert on the femur?

The fovea capitis.

26
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Does the hip joint have collateral ligaments?

No, it has no collateral ligaments.

27
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Which ligament is unique to equids?

The accessory ligament.

28
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From what structure does the equine accessory ligament originate?

The prepubic tendon.

29
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What is the functional purpose of the accessory ligament in horses?

It limits inward rotation (pronation) and abduction of the thigh.

30
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Why is hip luxation uncommon in horses?

Because the joint is highly stable.

31
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In which horses is hip luxation most frequently seen?

Ponies and miniature horses.

32
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What movements are permitted by the hip joint in small animals?

Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, and rotation.

33
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What movements are the hip joint restricted to in large animals?

Flexion and extension.

34
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What is canine hip dysplasia?

An inherited disease causing hip joint laxity, subluxation, and osteoarthritis.

35
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Name three factors contributing to canine hip laxity.

Weak joint capsule, lack of muscle development, and increased joint fluid volume.

36
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What is the "Ortolani sign"?

A palpable or audible "clunk" felt during a clinical test for hip laxity in young dogs.

37
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What is a "steep dorsal acetabular slope" associated with?

Canine hip dysplasia.

38
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What structure primarily stabilizes the canine hip joint?

Ligament of the head of the femur.

39
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What is the "acetabular fossa"?

The area where the ligament of the head of the femur attaches within the acetabulum.

40
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What is the "fovea"?

The specific depression on the femoral head for ligament attachment.

41
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What are the three bones involved in the stifle joint?

Femur, patella, and tibia.

42
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What are the two component joints of the stifle?

Femoropatellar and femorotibial joints.

43
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What is the largest synovial joint in the body?

The stifle joint.

44
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How many patellar ligaments do dogs have?

One.

45
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How many patellar ligaments do horses and cattle have?

Three (medial, intermediate, lateral).

46
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What is the function of the parapatellar fibrocartilage in the horse?

It extends the joint and helps in the locking mechanism.

47
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Which animal has a very well-developed medial parapatellar fibrocartilage?

Large animals (horses/cattle).

48
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What is the "passive stay-apparatus" locking mechanism?

A system allowing one pelvic limb to support weight while the other rests, allowing the horse to remain standing.

49
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What are the "menisci"?

Two semilunar fibrocartilage discs over the tibial condyles.

50
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What is the main function of the menisci?

To distribute load and reduce contact stresses in the joint.

51
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To which ligament does the medial meniscus attach?

The medial collateral ligament.

52
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Where do the cruciate ligaments cross?

At the center of the stifle joint.

53
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What is the primary stability provided by the cruciate ligaments?

Cranio-caudal stability.

54
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From where does the cranial cruciate ligament arise?

The lateral condyle of the femur.

55
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From where does the caudal cruciate ligament arise?

The lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle.

56
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Which stifle ligament is at the greatest risk of rupture during overextension?

The cranial cruciate ligament.

57
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What is the "cranial drawer sign"?

Abnormally free forward displacement of the tibia indicating a cranial cruciate rupture.

58
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When is the caudal cruciate ligament at the greatest risk of injury?

In the flexed position of the joint.

59
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What are the sesamoid bones in the gastrocnemius muscle called?

Fabellae.

60
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Which species lack the gastrocnemius sesamoids?

Equine and bovine.

61
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What is the "popliteal sesamoid"?

A small sesamoid bone related to the margin of the tibia in dogs.

62
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What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

The patella.

63
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In which tendon does the patella ossify?

The tendon of insertion of the quadriceps muscle.

64
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Where does the patellar ligament attach on the tibia?

The tibial tuberosity.

65
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What is "patellar luxation"?

A condition where the patella slips out of the trochlear groove, most common in small breed dogs.

66
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What is the ratio of medial to lateral patellar luxation in large dog breeds?

4:1.

67
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What is the ratio of medial to lateral patellar luxation across all dog breeds?

7:1.

68
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What are TPLO and TTA?

Surgical corrective principles for cranial cruciate ligament (CCL) repair.

69
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What is the "medial and lateral femoropatellar ligaments"?

Thin fascial bands extending from the patella to the gastrocnemial sesamoids.

70
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Which stifle joint sacs communicate 100% of the time in all joints?

The medial femorotibial sac and femoropatellar sac.

71
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What are the four levels of articulation in the hock?

Tarsocrural, proximal intertarsal, distal intertarsal, and tarsometatarsal.

72
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Which hock articulation is the most moveable?

The tarsocrural joint.

73
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What is "bog spavin"?

Synovial effusion of the tarsocrural (tibiotarsal) joint in horses.

74
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Which two hock joints communicate directly in horses?

Tarsocrural and proximal intertarsal.

75
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Which bones form the tarsocrural joint in the horse?

The tibia and the talus.

76
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Why is the fibula not mentioned in the equine tarsocrural joint articulation?

The distal aspect of the fibula is incorporated into the tibia.

77
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What movement is possible in the carnivore proximal intertarsal joint?

Lateral movement, rotation, flexion, and extension.

78
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What movement is possible in the equine proximal intertarsal joint?

Almost no movement.

79
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What is "bone spavin"?

Osteoarthritis or arthritis of the distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints.

80
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What is a "low motion joint" in the equine hock?

The distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints.

81
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What is the "trochlea" of the talus like in horses?

Quite oblique and laterally directed.

82
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What does the obliquity of the equine hock help avoid during flexion?

Caudal interference with the stifle.

83
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What is "Osteochondrosis (OCD)" in horses?

A developmental disorder where pieces of cartilage or bone break off.

84
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Name a common site for OCD in the equine tarsus.

The intermediate ridge of the distal tibia.

85
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Which hock ligaments are divided into long and short branches?

The medial and lateral collateral ligaments.

86
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What is the "long plantar ligament"?

A strong band on the plantar aspect that stabilizes the calcaneus.

87
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What is "Curb"?

Desmitis (inflammation) and thickening of the long plantar ligament.

88
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Where does the long plantar ligament insert?

The 4th metatarsal bone.

89
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What is the "accessory (check) ligament" of the DDF in horses?

A tendinous slip connecting the deep digital flexor tendon to MT III.

90
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Does the horse have a check ligament for the superficial digital flexor (SDF)?

No.

91
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What is the "cunean tendon"?

The medial tendon of the tibialis cranialis muscle.

92
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Where is the cunean bursa located?

Between the cunean tendon and the medial collateral ligament.

93
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Why might a portion of the cunean tendon be resected?

To reduce pressure over a lesion and eliminate movement.

94
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What is the "reciprocal apparatus"?

A system where the hock is forced to flex or extend in unison with the stifle and hip.

95
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What is the hardest-worked joint in the equine body?

The tarsal (hock) joint.

96
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In which hock joint is synovial fluid typically harvested?

The tarsocrural joint.

97
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What defines "High Spavin"?

Osteoarthritis occurring at the tarsocrural joint.

98
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What hock joints communicate 25–38% of the time?

The distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints.

99
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What are the clinical signs of hock OCD?

Joint effusion with minimal lameness.

100
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What is the primary motion allowed by the stifle?

Flexion and extension.